My wife owns 60% of her home as the product of divorce, with her ex owning the other 40%. He is buying her out of her share and we are using the proceeds to buy a home of her own.
He has told my wife that in order to proceed with his mortgage application she needs to sign over the deeds to him before anything else happens. To me it seems that it should be the final step of the transaction. Can anyone offer any advice to clear this up?
He has told my wife that in order to proceed with his mortgage application she needs to sign over the deeds to him before anything else happens. To me it seems that it should be the final step of the transaction. Can anyone offer any advice to clear this up?
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