This may get a bit convoluted. I have been using a solicitor but I really have lost any confidence that he knows what he is doing.
Somebody (let’s call him A) is claiming a prescriptive right of way over part of my drive to access a track over somebody else’s (call him B) property which then leads to A’s tumbledown sheds. Those sheds are accessible by A from the opposite direction but with a long detour. A wants to develop the sheds so intensifying the access over my drive.
Our neighbour B has already proved that there is no documented right of way and has managed to produce evidence that he told A over 25 years ago that he had no right of way and had often stopped him using it. However, I have no such evidence of him being stopped using my drive because I have only been here 3 years and, to be honest, I am not here during the day to see or stop him using it.
I need to protect my position independently of what happens between A and B, in case they do a deal. The question is: if A can be proved to have had no historic legal right of way over B’s track, does that mean that his use of my drive to access the track is equally illegal and cannot constitute a prescriptive right?
Any advice would be welcome.
Somebody (let’s call him A) is claiming a prescriptive right of way over part of my drive to access a track over somebody else’s (call him B) property which then leads to A’s tumbledown sheds. Those sheds are accessible by A from the opposite direction but with a long detour. A wants to develop the sheds so intensifying the access over my drive.
Our neighbour B has already proved that there is no documented right of way and has managed to produce evidence that he told A over 25 years ago that he had no right of way and had often stopped him using it. However, I have no such evidence of him being stopped using my drive because I have only been here 3 years and, to be honest, I am not here during the day to see or stop him using it.
I need to protect my position independently of what happens between A and B, in case they do a deal. The question is: if A can be proved to have had no historic legal right of way over B’s track, does that mean that his use of my drive to access the track is equally illegal and cannot constitute a prescriptive right?
Any advice would be welcome.
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