Hi!
I have recently taken an interest in the legal position of landlord and tenant in case of a live-in landlord granting an occupier, who in the eyes of the Housing Act would be an excluded occupier, additional protection from eviction, e.g. through a "Common Law" tenancy agreement.
Now, the comments I found on the web can essentially be divided into two categories:
1) One group suggests that the "Common Law" tenancies are meaningless, since all that matters is that the occupier is excluded. He can be asked to leave at any time (subject to reasonable notice).
2) Another group of commentators suggests that whatever landlord and tenant may agree in writing binds both parties since non-Housing Act tenancies are governed by the plain wording of the tenancy agreement.
Of course there are very few shades of grey in between these positions. I wonder which is actually correct? Case law??
Thanks!
I have recently taken an interest in the legal position of landlord and tenant in case of a live-in landlord granting an occupier, who in the eyes of the Housing Act would be an excluded occupier, additional protection from eviction, e.g. through a "Common Law" tenancy agreement.
Now, the comments I found on the web can essentially be divided into two categories:
1) One group suggests that the "Common Law" tenancies are meaningless, since all that matters is that the occupier is excluded. He can be asked to leave at any time (subject to reasonable notice).
2) Another group of commentators suggests that whatever landlord and tenant may agree in writing binds both parties since non-Housing Act tenancies are governed by the plain wording of the tenancy agreement.
Of course there are very few shades of grey in between these positions. I wonder which is actually correct? Case law??
Thanks!
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