This is a complex one that needs a little background first.
After moving in 2004, I managed a remortgage in Feb 2006, to a cheaper-rate deal tied for 2 years. This was with Kengsington Mortgages who speaialised in sub-prime borrowers (but have recently pulled out of the sub-prime market). The rate was 6.7% and I expected to move to a cheaper deal after it ended. In the agreement, the rate was likely to rise to about 8.5%, should I stay with them.
A few months after taking the mortgage out, it was transferred to Derbyshire Home Loans, with an assurance that the conditions of the existing agreement would be honoured. I don't believe I signed anything and they assured me that the only thing altering was the detail of the actual provider.
With the current credit squeeze and my situation, it is doubtful at the moment whether I can get a remortgage on this house. Even if I could, I have a major landslip problem caused by work done by the previous owner, that I have an insurance investigator and a solicitor pursuing (for a year now). If I sell or remortgage before this is resolved, then I stand to lose 20-30k from the house value, so I planned to hold on to the current mortgage after the rate increase in Feb, until the landslip is sorted and I can remortgage/sell when the time is right, which plainly is not now.
After hearing nothing in advance about the new rate, I have now been informed that from March they intend to charge 10.1%, with no explanation of why the rate is so high, nor what the type of mortgage this is. I have never missed a payment with them, so there is no justification for charging any excess.
With the current level of interest rates I can see no explanation for this ridiculous rate, other than the fact that they presumably know I will struggle to remortgage and are trying it on as they realise I have little option elsewhere. If they try this with all sub-prime borrowers, then many will pay their rate and those that cannot will simply default and sell up. Either way they can't lose.
In view of the fact that this rate is plainly excessive compared with the agreement, I am wondering whether there are grounds to challenge it as it cannot be justified within the spirit or the letter of the agreement that has not been changed.
Any thoughts please?
After moving in 2004, I managed a remortgage in Feb 2006, to a cheaper-rate deal tied for 2 years. This was with Kengsington Mortgages who speaialised in sub-prime borrowers (but have recently pulled out of the sub-prime market). The rate was 6.7% and I expected to move to a cheaper deal after it ended. In the agreement, the rate was likely to rise to about 8.5%, should I stay with them.
A few months after taking the mortgage out, it was transferred to Derbyshire Home Loans, with an assurance that the conditions of the existing agreement would be honoured. I don't believe I signed anything and they assured me that the only thing altering was the detail of the actual provider.
With the current credit squeeze and my situation, it is doubtful at the moment whether I can get a remortgage on this house. Even if I could, I have a major landslip problem caused by work done by the previous owner, that I have an insurance investigator and a solicitor pursuing (for a year now). If I sell or remortgage before this is resolved, then I stand to lose 20-30k from the house value, so I planned to hold on to the current mortgage after the rate increase in Feb, until the landslip is sorted and I can remortgage/sell when the time is right, which plainly is not now.
After hearing nothing in advance about the new rate, I have now been informed that from March they intend to charge 10.1%, with no explanation of why the rate is so high, nor what the type of mortgage this is. I have never missed a payment with them, so there is no justification for charging any excess.
With the current level of interest rates I can see no explanation for this ridiculous rate, other than the fact that they presumably know I will struggle to remortgage and are trying it on as they realise I have little option elsewhere. If they try this with all sub-prime borrowers, then many will pay their rate and those that cannot will simply default and sell up. Either way they can't lose.
In view of the fact that this rate is plainly excessive compared with the agreement, I am wondering whether there are grounds to challenge it as it cannot be justified within the spirit or the letter of the agreement that has not been changed.
Any thoughts please?
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