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In simple terms our deeds (freehold property) state that all householders are members of an Owners Association which is responsible for voting on certain matters - (such as who should be engaged as the maintenance manager to manage such things as curring of grass in common areas).
In the deeds it says that for meetings of the Association to be quorate at least 35% of members must be in attendance.
My question is,
If a member cannot attend but gives written permission for another member to act on their behalf at the meeting (a proxy?) does this count as attendance on their part.
Just for clarity, the deeds do not mention anywhere anything about proxy attendance or voting.
Any info appreciated.
In the deeds it says that for meetings of the Association to be quorate at least 35% of members must be in attendance.
My question is,
If a member cannot attend but gives written permission for another member to act on their behalf at the meeting (a proxy?) does this count as attendance on their part.
Just for clarity, the deeds do not mention anywhere anything about proxy attendance or voting.
Any info appreciated.
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