This post concerns the ownership of a piece of land adjoining the properties of my neighbour and myself.
In summary, I had a dispute with my neighbour on ownership of the land in question. I consulted a land surveyor and a solicitor; they inspected numerous historical deeds/conveyances/ land registry entries etc. and they concluded that I own the land.
The evidence was presented to my neighbour, and they accepted my ownership.
However, my neighbour’s son has recently looked at this matter, in detail, following the passing of his father, and consulted a London barrister, who according to the son, specialises in land claims.
The barrister has concluded that I do not own the land, claiming that the land surveyor is incorrect due to his lack of legal knowledge.
The barrister has gone on to say he “identified a conflicting element, and under this specific circumstance of record conflict, there has been a court challenge that clarifies which is authoritative”.
I have not had chance yet to speak to my solicitor, as I’ve only just received this communication, but the phrase, shown in inverted commas, and underlined above, concerns me.
Is it likely that there has been a court case in the past, and the court issued a ruling as to who owns the land?
Advice and comment would be appreciated.
Thank You,
In summary, I had a dispute with my neighbour on ownership of the land in question. I consulted a land surveyor and a solicitor; they inspected numerous historical deeds/conveyances/ land registry entries etc. and they concluded that I own the land.
The evidence was presented to my neighbour, and they accepted my ownership.
However, my neighbour’s son has recently looked at this matter, in detail, following the passing of his father, and consulted a London barrister, who according to the son, specialises in land claims.
The barrister has concluded that I do not own the land, claiming that the land surveyor is incorrect due to his lack of legal knowledge.
The barrister has gone on to say he “identified a conflicting element, and under this specific circumstance of record conflict, there has been a court challenge that clarifies which is authoritative”.
I have not had chance yet to speak to my solicitor, as I’ve only just received this communication, but the phrase, shown in inverted commas, and underlined above, concerns me.
Is it likely that there has been a court case in the past, and the court issued a ruling as to who owns the land?
Advice and comment would be appreciated.
Thank You,
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