These issues are rumbling on.
As previously described to this helpful and excellent forum - my neighbour continues to partially block my driveway by parking his vehicle there - even though he as adequate space on his own driveway.
I have concerns that an emergency vehicle will not be able to access my property as the larger delivery vans have not been able to get through, so I must ask my neighbour to move the car or cart the delivery goods to the top of my drive myself. The delivery drivers won’t wait as they have tight delivery schedules.
The parking doesn't happen that often - probably once for a day every two weeks.
The land outside my drive is part of my registered title, confirmed by a boundary surveyor and a solicitor - so my neighbour is parking on my land.
My neighbour is claiming that he has parked there for last 20 years and if I need access I only have to ask, and he will move the car and has even offered to give me a key so I can move the car myself. This isn’t practical especially in an emergency.
He believes that he now has prescriptive rights for an easement allowing him to continue to park.
I'm going to consult my solicitor on this before I react although he has informed me that he is a conveyancing solicitor and will have to refer the case to his firms (more expensive) dispute resolution department. I have spent nearly £2,000 so far in surveyors/legal fees on another part of my land.
Reading on the internet (I am relying on this!) in particular the case of “Green v Ashco Horticultural Ltd”: -
Where the situation was that a claim for the right to park a van failed because the nature of the relationship between the two pieces of land was that the claimant would move the van at the discretion and request of the servient owner.
So, they suggested that any sort of easement or right only existed at the discretion of the servient owner and an easement over of the piece of land wasn't created.
So ultimately this is an example of a relationship between the two pieces of land was creating a license of use rather than an easement.
The case suggests that a license has been created rather than an easement. Presumably the license can we revoked?
Any comments would be helpful before I incur more fees.
As previously described to this helpful and excellent forum - my neighbour continues to partially block my driveway by parking his vehicle there - even though he as adequate space on his own driveway.
I have concerns that an emergency vehicle will not be able to access my property as the larger delivery vans have not been able to get through, so I must ask my neighbour to move the car or cart the delivery goods to the top of my drive myself. The delivery drivers won’t wait as they have tight delivery schedules.
The parking doesn't happen that often - probably once for a day every two weeks.
The land outside my drive is part of my registered title, confirmed by a boundary surveyor and a solicitor - so my neighbour is parking on my land.
My neighbour is claiming that he has parked there for last 20 years and if I need access I only have to ask, and he will move the car and has even offered to give me a key so I can move the car myself. This isn’t practical especially in an emergency.
He believes that he now has prescriptive rights for an easement allowing him to continue to park.
I'm going to consult my solicitor on this before I react although he has informed me that he is a conveyancing solicitor and will have to refer the case to his firms (more expensive) dispute resolution department. I have spent nearly £2,000 so far in surveyors/legal fees on another part of my land.
Reading on the internet (I am relying on this!) in particular the case of “Green v Ashco Horticultural Ltd”: -
Where the situation was that a claim for the right to park a van failed because the nature of the relationship between the two pieces of land was that the claimant would move the van at the discretion and request of the servient owner.
So, they suggested that any sort of easement or right only existed at the discretion of the servient owner and an easement over of the piece of land wasn't created.
So ultimately this is an example of a relationship between the two pieces of land was creating a license of use rather than an easement.
The case suggests that a license has been created rather than an easement. Presumably the license can we revoked?
Any comments would be helpful before I incur more fees.
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