Hi, I'm looking for some help.
The freehold property my rented house is on has been sold by the developer (who I currently rent from). It has numerous houses on the property. Some of which are owed leasehold.
The new owner has indicated he wants to sell the houses freehold.
As a tenant for the last 3 years, does my rental agreement which is still valid until nearly the end of the year give me first right of refusal?
No notice was given by the developer to tenants or leasehold owners of their intention to sell.
I discussed purchasing it from the new owner and he's thrown out a whack of a number I don't think he'll get if he were to market the property. I've told him at that amount, I wouldn't be interested in purchasing it. I can only hope he comes back with a more reasonable figure but, if he decides to market it, would the he have to give me the option to match an offer to purchase he's going to accept? Thanks
The freehold property my rented house is on has been sold by the developer (who I currently rent from). It has numerous houses on the property. Some of which are owed leasehold.
The new owner has indicated he wants to sell the houses freehold.
As a tenant for the last 3 years, does my rental agreement which is still valid until nearly the end of the year give me first right of refusal?
No notice was given by the developer to tenants or leasehold owners of their intention to sell.
I discussed purchasing it from the new owner and he's thrown out a whack of a number I don't think he'll get if he were to market the property. I've told him at that amount, I wouldn't be interested in purchasing it. I can only hope he comes back with a more reasonable figure but, if he decides to market it, would the he have to give me the option to match an offer to purchase he's going to accept? Thanks
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