Hello,
A friend owns part of an old mansion on an active landslip which was divided into three maisonettes in the 70s. The drive goes behind the first two maisonettes before arriving at the garage of my friend's, and is apparently owned by the central property.
Now, in 2001 there was major ground movement which took out the main road which serves the drive, including the point of access. The main road was rerouted, and the access was reinstated just a few metres further up. The owners of the drive continued to let my friend use the drive and built themselves a shed in front of the old access. However, now my friend wishes to sell the property, the owners of the access are saying that they will not let the new owners use the new access point, unless access is purchased for an extortionate sum. I have not yet seen how the access is defined on the deeds.
My understanding would be that generally, whilst the old access has been severely damaged, the beneficiaries of the right of way (my friend) would have the right to reinstate it along the old route, at their own expense. Clearly the shed would have to be removed. I imagine that, if this can be proved, the owner of the right of way would rather concede access through the new gate! But does that sound like a fair assumption of rights?
The other possibility is that the exact route of access isn't defined in the deeds, in which case I'm not clear what the outcome would be.
Thanks so much for any insight!
A friend owns part of an old mansion on an active landslip which was divided into three maisonettes in the 70s. The drive goes behind the first two maisonettes before arriving at the garage of my friend's, and is apparently owned by the central property.
Now, in 2001 there was major ground movement which took out the main road which serves the drive, including the point of access. The main road was rerouted, and the access was reinstated just a few metres further up. The owners of the drive continued to let my friend use the drive and built themselves a shed in front of the old access. However, now my friend wishes to sell the property, the owners of the access are saying that they will not let the new owners use the new access point, unless access is purchased for an extortionate sum. I have not yet seen how the access is defined on the deeds.
My understanding would be that generally, whilst the old access has been severely damaged, the beneficiaries of the right of way (my friend) would have the right to reinstate it along the old route, at their own expense. Clearly the shed would have to be removed. I imagine that, if this can be proved, the owner of the right of way would rather concede access through the new gate! But does that sound like a fair assumption of rights?
The other possibility is that the exact route of access isn't defined in the deeds, in which case I'm not clear what the outcome would be.
Thanks so much for any insight!
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