We bought our house 5 years ago, a new build as part of phase 1. Our property is located on a communal private driveway, of which the four properties that use it have rights of way and a shared responsibility for maintenance and repairs. The location of our private drive is at the edge of the estate, and on the other side of our private drive is a country park, of which there is public access the next street over, in addition to other public entry points. Since we purchased there has been a dramatic increase in the amount of people using our private driveway as a public access. As residents, we're fed up with the noise and mess. We're restricted by our purchase agreements from being able to put up a fence for 5 years from the date of purchase (this Sept). Things have gotten really bad lately, so much so that we put in planter boxes to make the route inconvenient and lower the footfall. We've proven that there is no public right of way through our driveway, which the council have also confirmed, but we're now being challenged that while there is no public right of way, there may be legal right of access. The council have written to Panning hoping for a ruling, but they have declined and forwarded the request to highways. The councillor I have been in communication with told me that unless a definitive statement is forthcoming a legal ruling may be required. Has anyone heard of this before? How can there be public access when it's been proven there is no public right of way? What is the point of having no public right of way through your private property if this is overruled by public access? I've tried to research, but anything I try to google just brings me to advice around public right of way.....
Any insight or experience with something similar is appreciated.
Any insight or experience with something similar is appreciated.
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