The photo shows the boundary between two attached houses when both houses were sold back in 2016. Before this, these properties had only ever been owned by a single company and rented out. The land that surrounds the houses remains private and is owned by the same company.
The houses were refurbished, new fences were erected, and they were then sold individually.
The boundary in the photo is my responsibility according to the inward ‘T’ shown on my deeds.
To this point, myself and my neighbours have been assuming that the boundary was defined by the far edge of the wooden fence. The assumption being that this was the intended exact boundary of the property even though it was not exactly in the middle.
I have maintained the assumption that the wooden fence was mine and that the boundary was its far edge. It seemed a reasonable assumption to me that the seller chose not to remove what remained of the chain-link in order to reduce costs.
It is an assumption of mine that, given that these properties had never been individually owned before us, that the boundary indicated on OS maps was simply an assumption. The fence erected by the seller defines the boundary as no boundary really existed beforehand.
My neighbour is now suggesting that the remains of the chain link fence (which I have since removed) actually represented my border and my fence. Therefore, they are making the claim that the wooden fence is in fact their property.
Any opinions on this matter will be gratefully received.
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