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Hi all.
A little bit of background. My ex partner bought a property in cash (there is no mortgage) a few years ago and he put both our names on the deed. I am looking at the deed and there are three options:
I have a few questions:
- Regardless of the fact he paid for the property, is this deed legally binding and am I entitled to half of the sale proceeds, since I own it in equal shares with him, 50/50?
- Would there be another document which I have not seen stipulating some kind of terms and conditions. For example: if the property sells he gets all of the money he invested back? I am guessing if there were terms such as that then the third option would have been ticked (Hold the property on trust in some other way) with an additional document outlining the terms? I called the land registry office and they said there were no documents like that on file but maybe a solicitor would have it if it exists?
- And lastly, could he fight to get all of the sales proceeds and what is the likelihood he would win? Where do I stand from a legal standpoint on this?
A little bit of background. My ex partner bought a property in cash (there is no mortgage) a few years ago and he put both our names on the deed. I am looking at the deed and there are three options:
- they are to hold the property on trust for themselves as joint tenants
- they are to hold the property on trust for themselves as tenants in common in equal shares
- they are to hold the property on trust: [in some other way]
I have a few questions:
- Regardless of the fact he paid for the property, is this deed legally binding and am I entitled to half of the sale proceeds, since I own it in equal shares with him, 50/50?
- Would there be another document which I have not seen stipulating some kind of terms and conditions. For example: if the property sells he gets all of the money he invested back? I am guessing if there were terms such as that then the third option would have been ticked (Hold the property on trust in some other way) with an additional document outlining the terms? I called the land registry office and they said there were no documents like that on file but maybe a solicitor would have it if it exists?
- And lastly, could he fight to get all of the sales proceeds and what is the likelihood he would win? Where do I stand from a legal standpoint on this?
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