I've been round the houses trying to find an answer on this, so hoping someone can help.
I have a neighbour who has written me a letter to say that I must cut back my shrubs that are growing over the boundary by a few inches. The letter gives me 28 days to do this. Absolutely fine. Although I have told him he can cut back when goes over the boundary as it's difficult for me to see (but he doesn't).
Within the long, rambling letter it goes back over old ground with regard to previous problems (noise & trespassing by them - he's trying to "put me right" on certain points), but he's started the letter as Without Prejudice.
I'm struggling to find why this would be included. There's no court proceedings ongoing, nor likely to be in the future, no issue with monetary claims, there's no "settlement" - so why would he include this?
I'm worried because he's an intelligent man. I'm thinking he knows something I don't!
I have a neighbour who has written me a letter to say that I must cut back my shrubs that are growing over the boundary by a few inches. The letter gives me 28 days to do this. Absolutely fine. Although I have told him he can cut back when goes over the boundary as it's difficult for me to see (but he doesn't).
Within the long, rambling letter it goes back over old ground with regard to previous problems (noise & trespassing by them - he's trying to "put me right" on certain points), but he's started the letter as Without Prejudice.
I'm struggling to find why this would be included. There's no court proceedings ongoing, nor likely to be in the future, no issue with monetary claims, there's no "settlement" - so why would he include this?
I'm worried because he's an intelligent man. I'm thinking he knows something I don't!
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