Hello. I wondered whether anyone could help me with a question I have. I know this isn't urgent, as are many of the other questions on this forum, but it's something I'd like to have clarification on before I approach a solicitor to draw up any documentation.
By way of background information, my wife, infant son and I moved into my mother’s house (“house 1”) 11 years ago. About 10 years ago, my mother transferred 50% of the equity in her house to me, the consideration being natural love and affection. My wife was not on the deeds.
When my second child was born a year later, I used the proceeds of sale of my flat and my savings to substantially improve house 1, extending to make a larger kitchen, additional bathroom and improving the formerly dangerous garden, making the whole place more spacious, and safer for both young children and my elderly mother (who was beginning to find stairs increasingly difficult). The work also considerably increased the value of house 1.
Four years ago, we sold house 1 and moved to house 2, which was more expensive. The house was registered in my name and my mother’s name. The entire proceeds of the sale of house 1 were put towards the purchase of house 2 and the difference between the house prices was paid by me from my savings, together with all the moving costs, legal fees and stamp duty.
Since living in house 2, I have paid for many alterations and improvements to the house, from practical things like installing a separate kitchen for my mother and improving the heating in her room, to essential works such as replacing ailing plumbing and roof repairs, to cosmetic improvements.
The money I spent on house 1, the moving costs and the money I’ve spent on house 2 so far comes to some £182,000 (and this amount is rising, as I’m about to undertake a garden project).
My question is: has the equity balance changed from 50/50?
I had house 1 valued before the improvement works were carried out and it was valued at £300,000. This means that at that point, my mother’s equity would have been £150,000. Once we moved in with her in house 1, she stopped spending money on the house, its upkeep or the utilities. Does this mean that she put £150,000 towards house 2, or am I completely getting this wrong?
Any advice you can give will be much appreciated.
By way of background information, my wife, infant son and I moved into my mother’s house (“house 1”) 11 years ago. About 10 years ago, my mother transferred 50% of the equity in her house to me, the consideration being natural love and affection. My wife was not on the deeds.
When my second child was born a year later, I used the proceeds of sale of my flat and my savings to substantially improve house 1, extending to make a larger kitchen, additional bathroom and improving the formerly dangerous garden, making the whole place more spacious, and safer for both young children and my elderly mother (who was beginning to find stairs increasingly difficult). The work also considerably increased the value of house 1.
Four years ago, we sold house 1 and moved to house 2, which was more expensive. The house was registered in my name and my mother’s name. The entire proceeds of the sale of house 1 were put towards the purchase of house 2 and the difference between the house prices was paid by me from my savings, together with all the moving costs, legal fees and stamp duty.
Since living in house 2, I have paid for many alterations and improvements to the house, from practical things like installing a separate kitchen for my mother and improving the heating in her room, to essential works such as replacing ailing plumbing and roof repairs, to cosmetic improvements.
The money I spent on house 1, the moving costs and the money I’ve spent on house 2 so far comes to some £182,000 (and this amount is rising, as I’m about to undertake a garden project).
My question is: has the equity balance changed from 50/50?
I had house 1 valued before the improvement works were carried out and it was valued at £300,000. This means that at that point, my mother’s equity would have been £150,000. Once we moved in with her in house 1, she stopped spending money on the house, its upkeep or the utilities. Does this mean that she put £150,000 towards house 2, or am I completely getting this wrong?
Any advice you can give will be much appreciated.
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