I thought I'd start the ball rolling with this one, as it's not strictly a Cabot proble, but does relate to the way they operate.
When a debt is sold (assigned), under what law does it pass from original creditor to debt purchsing agency? And as any alleged original agreement would have been regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974, whatgives the new owner of any assigned account the right to say the CCA does not apply to them?
Does that mean they are right, and have been assigned only the rights to the account?
And if so, does that mean the ORIGINAL CREDITOR is still liable for all duties?
Discuss?
When a debt is sold (assigned), under what law does it pass from original creditor to debt purchsing agency? And as any alleged original agreement would have been regulated by the Consumer Credit Act 1974, whatgives the new owner of any assigned account the right to say the CCA does not apply to them?
Does that mean they are right, and have been assigned only the rights to the account?
And if so, does that mean the ORIGINAL CREDITOR is still liable for all duties?
Discuss?
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