The situation is that a security was taken over a development plot of land by a lender. The lender was to provide funding in two stages. First stage released (approx 30% of contracted amount).
Only a few weeks later after releasing the first stage of funds,and only a few weeks into the short term contract between the lender and the borrower, the lender decides to sell on the security to a third party for the full amount that they were supposed to lend the borrower under the contract for which the security taken against, effectively the lender is now in profit by Łtens of thousands.
The lender refuses to give the borrower the rest of money under the original contract.(a long story but the lender simply wanted to alter the terms of the original contract which would cost the borrower many Łthousands, the borrower refuses and all breaks down) The lenders solicitor threatens that they will take legal action to repossess for the 30% of funds they did provide + fees, even though her client, "the lender" had no interest in the plot of land at the time as he sold on the security to a stranger.
Now, Another solicitor within the same firm ( only one office for this solicitors and i think 4 solicitors working under a partnership company, Not Limited) carried out both the selling and buying of the security to the third party stranger who happens to live outside the UK, this was done without the knowledge of the borrower who owned the land and who had given security to the lender for an amount he never supplied.
Effectively during period of negotiations to resolve the issue with the lender trying to get them to release the second stage funds under the contract, the solicitor acting on his behalf knew fine well that her client didnt hold any interest in the land as her company had acted on behalf of the lender(her client) who sold it to another third party and while still adding all her legal fees to her bill against the borrower under the original contract because the borrower would not agree to a change in the contract terms the lender wanted to include at a later time after everything was signed and concluded.
If anyone here can decipher this, as it has took a while for me to try and understand what has gone on here, I would very much appreciate your comments.
Is it even possible for this to be legal?
Only a few weeks later after releasing the first stage of funds,and only a few weeks into the short term contract between the lender and the borrower, the lender decides to sell on the security to a third party for the full amount that they were supposed to lend the borrower under the contract for which the security taken against, effectively the lender is now in profit by Łtens of thousands.
The lender refuses to give the borrower the rest of money under the original contract.(a long story but the lender simply wanted to alter the terms of the original contract which would cost the borrower many Łthousands, the borrower refuses and all breaks down) The lenders solicitor threatens that they will take legal action to repossess for the 30% of funds they did provide + fees, even though her client, "the lender" had no interest in the plot of land at the time as he sold on the security to a stranger.
Now, Another solicitor within the same firm ( only one office for this solicitors and i think 4 solicitors working under a partnership company, Not Limited) carried out both the selling and buying of the security to the third party stranger who happens to live outside the UK, this was done without the knowledge of the borrower who owned the land and who had given security to the lender for an amount he never supplied.
Effectively during period of negotiations to resolve the issue with the lender trying to get them to release the second stage funds under the contract, the solicitor acting on his behalf knew fine well that her client didnt hold any interest in the land as her company had acted on behalf of the lender(her client) who sold it to another third party and while still adding all her legal fees to her bill against the borrower under the original contract because the borrower would not agree to a change in the contract terms the lender wanted to include at a later time after everything was signed and concluded.
If anyone here can decipher this, as it has took a while for me to try and understand what has gone on here, I would very much appreciate your comments.
Is it even possible for this to be legal?
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