Opinions please ...
X obtains a search warrant to enter premises occupied by Y.
Y knows at the time of execution that X has obtained the warrant fraudulently.
Is Y still obliged to co-operate? Is a warrant obtained by means of a criminal offence actually valid?
Should Y refuse to co-operate and then say 'so charge me with obstruction/contempt and then we'll see'?
If the warrant is valid (in that it is issued by the court in good faith), I wonder of the equitable principle that 'the law may not be used to break the law' applies here (Y must co-operate, but if X actually uses it, then he will be acting unlawfully).
Could it be argued that if Y knows the warrant to be obtained by virtue of a criminal offence (perjury, for instance), then Y cannot be compelled to participate in what he knows to be an unlawful act?
X obtains a search warrant to enter premises occupied by Y.
Y knows at the time of execution that X has obtained the warrant fraudulently.
Is Y still obliged to co-operate? Is a warrant obtained by means of a criminal offence actually valid?
Should Y refuse to co-operate and then say 'so charge me with obstruction/contempt and then we'll see'?
If the warrant is valid (in that it is issued by the court in good faith), I wonder of the equitable principle that 'the law may not be used to break the law' applies here (Y must co-operate, but if X actually uses it, then he will be acting unlawfully).
Could it be argued that if Y knows the warrant to be obtained by virtue of a criminal offence (perjury, for instance), then Y cannot be compelled to participate in what he knows to be an unlawful act?
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