This may seem like a realy dumb question, but my head is a bit like mush this morning.
Ive never had any dealings with Trusts, and always thought of them as being express instruments that are only used by the wealthy.
My question is -
If a person charges a property that he owns as security for borrowings but retains title to his property, does that make him a trustee?
Ive never had any dealings with Trusts, and always thought of them as being express instruments that are only used by the wealthy.
My question is -
If a person charges a property that he owns as security for borrowings but retains title to his property, does that make him a trustee?
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