I've been looking at some case studies on a person giving their opinion or stating facts that are "to the best of their knowledge".
It is understood that there is always a duty to negotiate with care: 'if a man, who has or professes to have special knowledge or skill, makes a representation by virtue thereof to another, he is under a duty to use reasonable care to see that the representation is correct, and that the advice, information or opinion is reliable.
If it turns out that the information given could not have reliably been given but it was stated to be to the best of their knowledge, would this form a negligent mis-statement?
It is understood that there is always a duty to negotiate with care: 'if a man, who has or professes to have special knowledge or skill, makes a representation by virtue thereof to another, he is under a duty to use reasonable care to see that the representation is correct, and that the advice, information or opinion is reliable.
If it turns out that the information given could not have reliably been given but it was stated to be to the best of their knowledge, would this form a negligent mis-statement?
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