OK, the way I understand it (and it will be a simplistic view):
1. The Government are elected by the Populace on the back of their manifesto - which they have at least a moral obligation to honour, if not a legal one.
2. The Government legislate (make laws) based upon the decisions enshrined in their manifesto, and also based upon (unforeseen) exigencies presented during their tenure.
3. The Judiciary exists to (a) interpret and (b) rule on, the laws as they exist at the time of a particular Judgement being sought; whether civil or criminal.
4. If the Government "dislike" (for want of a more adult term) a particular Judgement then given sufficient support and a suitable majority in Parliament, they can issue new Laws which render such Judgements irrelevant, oboslete and impossible in the future.
So... basically, if a Government don't like a Judgement they can bang in a new law to invalidate it and to make Judgements of that nature go the desired way in future; the Judiciary simply interpret Law as it exists and express no opinion as to the validity and/or morality of that Law.
What redress to the Judiciary have if they believe a Law to be absolutely wrong and unjust in its substance? Can they refer cases to a higher Court (e.g. The European Court of Justice) when the Law causes them to "find" in a way which is morally wrong? Or are they BOUND to find against the wrong party and use the wording of the Judgement to convince the "wronged" party to continue the fight? If British domestic Law were in a particular case in direct contravention of European Law, would the Judge in a British Court find the way European Law directs, or the way British Law directs?
Please be gentle with me - these are new concepts to me and I need to get a handle on them... one day (money permitting) I intend to do a Law degree followed by a Masters; the more I understand now the better off I will be then.
Thanks
1. The Government are elected by the Populace on the back of their manifesto - which they have at least a moral obligation to honour, if not a legal one.
2. The Government legislate (make laws) based upon the decisions enshrined in their manifesto, and also based upon (unforeseen) exigencies presented during their tenure.
3. The Judiciary exists to (a) interpret and (b) rule on, the laws as they exist at the time of a particular Judgement being sought; whether civil or criminal.
4. If the Government "dislike" (for want of a more adult term) a particular Judgement then given sufficient support and a suitable majority in Parliament, they can issue new Laws which render such Judgements irrelevant, oboslete and impossible in the future.
So... basically, if a Government don't like a Judgement they can bang in a new law to invalidate it and to make Judgements of that nature go the desired way in future; the Judiciary simply interpret Law as it exists and express no opinion as to the validity and/or morality of that Law.
What redress to the Judiciary have if they believe a Law to be absolutely wrong and unjust in its substance? Can they refer cases to a higher Court (e.g. The European Court of Justice) when the Law causes them to "find" in a way which is morally wrong? Or are they BOUND to find against the wrong party and use the wording of the Judgement to convince the "wronged" party to continue the fight? If British domestic Law were in a particular case in direct contravention of European Law, would the Judge in a British Court find the way European Law directs, or the way British Law directs?
Please be gentle with me - these are new concepts to me and I need to get a handle on them... one day (money permitting) I intend to do a Law degree followed by a Masters; the more I understand now the better off I will be then.
Thanks
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