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I think this is the right group to put the thread in... if I haven't apologies.
My partner and I (we're not married) are looking to buy a house, however I want to protect the fact that she is putting more money in than me. This is for 2 reasons, one just generally in case we do split up (which is unlikely, but you never know) but also to cover a claim that has been made against me by my ex-in-laws via a CCJ application.
I won't go into too much detail about CCJ application, but I am fairly certain it is flawed, but just in case, I want to protect my partner's money.
As/when we buy the house, I want us to have an agreement whereby the money we're putting into the house up-front means that should we sell it, the sale money is split according to what we put in; additionally, as we pay off the mortgage, the additional equity is split equally as we'll be paying 50/50 on the mortgage, and should the house rise in valuation, again at sale the share of monies is shared appropriately. I have the wording for this laid out with examples, and my partner understands it and is happy.
However, should the CCJ court process get to the point where they start looking at personal finances, and this is my question, will having this agreement in place protect my partners monies, or does us buying a house, and being listed owners (on the land registry or wherever) mean that any equity in that house is "up for grabs" should the court want to get money from me?
I'm trying to avoid getting legal advise, as it cost me £2k to fill in the original defence with the court - however should we get much further in the court process, and it actually reach hearings, then I will be appointing a solicitor again.
This question is purely about the house purchase, and whether having the asset owned by both of us means the court will consider the monies my partner put in as my asset?
Many thanks
My partner and I (we're not married) are looking to buy a house, however I want to protect the fact that she is putting more money in than me. This is for 2 reasons, one just generally in case we do split up (which is unlikely, but you never know) but also to cover a claim that has been made against me by my ex-in-laws via a CCJ application.
I won't go into too much detail about CCJ application, but I am fairly certain it is flawed, but just in case, I want to protect my partner's money.
As/when we buy the house, I want us to have an agreement whereby the money we're putting into the house up-front means that should we sell it, the sale money is split according to what we put in; additionally, as we pay off the mortgage, the additional equity is split equally as we'll be paying 50/50 on the mortgage, and should the house rise in valuation, again at sale the share of monies is shared appropriately. I have the wording for this laid out with examples, and my partner understands it and is happy.
However, should the CCJ court process get to the point where they start looking at personal finances, and this is my question, will having this agreement in place protect my partners monies, or does us buying a house, and being listed owners (on the land registry or wherever) mean that any equity in that house is "up for grabs" should the court want to get money from me?
I'm trying to avoid getting legal advise, as it cost me £2k to fill in the original defence with the court - however should we get much further in the court process, and it actually reach hearings, then I will be appointing a solicitor again.
This question is purely about the house purchase, and whether having the asset owned by both of us means the court will consider the monies my partner put in as my asset?
Many thanks
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