Can someone please explain in simple terms the 30 year limitation period per s. 28.4 of Limitation Act
S.28.4 Limitation Act
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I'll have a go, Cynthesis.
The limitation period starts from the time when it is known [or a 'reasonable person' should have known] that a right of action exists. (ie you can take someone to court.)
“Cause of Action” has been defined as “every fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if traversed, in order to support his right to the judgement of the Court”
Read v Brown (1888) 22 QBD 128 at 131. See also Central Electricity Generating Board v Halifax Corpn [1963] AC 785, at 800, 806
The limitation period is 30 years from that time for land, or money charged on land (ie a mortgage)CAVEAT LECTOR
This is only my opinion - "Opinions are made to be changed --or how is truth to be got at?" (Byron)
You and I do not see things as they are. We see things as we are.
Cohen, Herb
There is danger when a man throws his tongue into high gear before he
gets his brain a-going.
Phelps, C. C.
"They couldn't hit an elephant at this distance!"
The last words of John Sedgwick
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Thanks, but still confused. My late husband lacked mental capacity, and all the actions I commenced against the Bank failed.Whilst they didn’t fail on Limitation, the Bank claimed they were out of time but the court decided otherwise as the actions had been commenced within the 6 year Limitation period. The bank had repossessed a freehold property belonging to my incapacitated husband, when he had no legally appointed attorney to manage his property and affairs
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Originally posted by CYNthesys View PostThanks, but still confused. My late husband lacked mental capacity, and all the actions I commenced against the Bank failed.Whilst they didn’t fail on Limitation, the Bank claimed they were out of time but the court decided otherwise as the actions had been commenced within the 6 year Limitation period. The bank had repossessed a freehold property belonging to my incapacitated husband, when he had no legally appointed attorney to manage his property and affairsCAVEAT LECTOR
This is only my opinion - "Opinions are made to be changed --or how is truth to be got at?" (Byron)
You and I do not see things as they are. We see things as we are.
Cohen, Herb
There is danger when a man throws his tongue into high gear before he
gets his brain a-going.
Phelps, C. C.
"They couldn't hit an elephant at this distance!"
The last words of John Sedgwick
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Initially I thought 12 years as well, but when I couldn’t get a definitive answer off anyone I issued proceedings within 6 years to be on safe side. It’s still not clear to me re the 30 year time limit, do you think that would apply if all relevant info was withheld from a claimant. In response to a DSAR several years ago the Bank refused to disclose data that could possibly incriminate it at a later date. The Bank said that it would not be in a position to disclose info that may incriminate themLast edited by CYNthesys; 10th March 2019, 15:15:PM.
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I believe 30 years from the *incident* is the absolute limit.
End of, after that.CAVEAT LECTOR
This is only my opinion - "Opinions are made to be changed --or how is truth to be got at?" (Byron)
You and I do not see things as they are. We see things as we are.
Cohen, Herb
There is danger when a man throws his tongue into high gear before he
gets his brain a-going.
Phelps, C. C.
"They couldn't hit an elephant at this distance!"
The last words of John Sedgwick
- 1 thank
Comment
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The standard limits in other sections of the Limitation Act would apply usually but s28 provides a time extension in some cases. Where a person was under a disability then the limitation period can be extended to 6 years past the point of their disability ceasing or their death. s28(4) simply caps the Limitation Act to 30 years as a maximum where land is involved.
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Originally posted by CYNthesys View PostSo, am I right in assuming that the 30 years time limit would apply from the date that the bank appointed receivers with instructions to take possession of and dispose of my husbands solely owned property
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Originally posted by lgfa92 View Post
30 years would be from the 'right of action' accrued as per s28(4). So that would seem to me to be 30 years from the original action taking place, rather than the 'cause of action'.CAVEAT LECTOR
This is only my opinion - "Opinions are made to be changed --or how is truth to be got at?" (Byron)
You and I do not see things as they are. We see things as we are.
Cohen, Herb
There is danger when a man throws his tongue into high gear before he
gets his brain a-going.
Phelps, C. C.
"They couldn't hit an elephant at this distance!"
The last words of John Sedgwick
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Originally posted by charitynjw View Post
The actual date of the 'right of action' is slippery beast to try & pin down.
Originally posted by CYNthesys View PostThink that’s what Im struggling with, must confess to being a bit lost on all this
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Originally posted by CYNthesys View PostAny ideas on how I can ascertain the right of action in these circumstances
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