I would greatly appreciate if anyone can shed any light regarding an issue with my mother’s burial plot. When my father died in 2002 I understood the exclusive right of burial on the plot passed to me and my sister. Local cemetery records substantiate this.
My maternal grandfather passed away in 2009 and I was put under enormous pressure to give permission for his ashes to be buried with my mother even though it was not his wish. He was subsequently buried there. I had been led to understand on my mother’s death my father had bought the plot for my mother’s ashes and a headstone.
Now my maternal grandmother’s death is imminent (whom I am estranged from) the subject is raised again. I have now been told in fact my maternal grandfather bought the plot, which is possible but it was certainly in my father’s name, so whether or not my grandfather paid for it, as it was in my father’s name I assume my grandfather chose this arrangement, he was never a man to be walked over.
With only my father’s name on the deed of right only he ever had the exclusive right to burial and this passed to me and my sister on his death. I believe whomever purchased it, it was clearly purchased only for the sole purpose of burial of my mother’s ashes. There was not at the time any thought/plan for it to be used to eventually bury my grandparents.
An aunt is incensed that I own the right to burial in the plot and that I may have the power to prevent further burials in it, namely my grandmother. She thinks if my grandfather did buy the plot, which is her belief, as his and my grandmother’s beneficiary she would be entitled to a claim on it, even though the cemetery office holds information that clearly states only myself and my sister as owners from the passing down from my father. I have not been able to find any proof of who made the actual purchase.
Aunt is very wealthy (I am not) and will happily drag me endlessly through courts if necessary to get her way. Cemetary office said it was clear cut, if in my father’s name it’s a simple matter of passing down rights via inheritance, but if my grandfather paid the money then allowed it to be registered in my father’s name and passed down to me, would my grandparents and now my aunt ever have any claim to it in the eyes of the law? If you bought something for someone and it was in their name, would that give you or your beneficiary any future right to the use of it, particularly without permission. I think no, as a rule, but could this be different?
This is an important matter for me and it would be extremely helpful to have some advice. Other sources have yielded no help so far and I’m hoping someone might know.
Many thanks.
My maternal grandfather passed away in 2009 and I was put under enormous pressure to give permission for his ashes to be buried with my mother even though it was not his wish. He was subsequently buried there. I had been led to understand on my mother’s death my father had bought the plot for my mother’s ashes and a headstone.
Now my maternal grandmother’s death is imminent (whom I am estranged from) the subject is raised again. I have now been told in fact my maternal grandfather bought the plot, which is possible but it was certainly in my father’s name, so whether or not my grandfather paid for it, as it was in my father’s name I assume my grandfather chose this arrangement, he was never a man to be walked over.
With only my father’s name on the deed of right only he ever had the exclusive right to burial and this passed to me and my sister on his death. I believe whomever purchased it, it was clearly purchased only for the sole purpose of burial of my mother’s ashes. There was not at the time any thought/plan for it to be used to eventually bury my grandparents.
An aunt is incensed that I own the right to burial in the plot and that I may have the power to prevent further burials in it, namely my grandmother. She thinks if my grandfather did buy the plot, which is her belief, as his and my grandmother’s beneficiary she would be entitled to a claim on it, even though the cemetery office holds information that clearly states only myself and my sister as owners from the passing down from my father. I have not been able to find any proof of who made the actual purchase.
Aunt is very wealthy (I am not) and will happily drag me endlessly through courts if necessary to get her way. Cemetary office said it was clear cut, if in my father’s name it’s a simple matter of passing down rights via inheritance, but if my grandfather paid the money then allowed it to be registered in my father’s name and passed down to me, would my grandparents and now my aunt ever have any claim to it in the eyes of the law? If you bought something for someone and it was in their name, would that give you or your beneficiary any future right to the use of it, particularly without permission. I think no, as a rule, but could this be different?
This is an important matter for me and it would be extremely helpful to have some advice. Other sources have yielded no help so far and I’m hoping someone might know.
Many thanks.
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