I divorced 13 years ago and own jointly with my ex 2 high value properties, for various reasons no financial agreement was finalized both with 50/ 50 beneficial interest
My ex moved into one of the properties and has lived there for the past 13 years, I lived in the other for 2 years until I could no longer afford to pay the mortgage on both properties
So I rented out the property I lived in and continued to pay the mortgage on both properties and I held on to the excess as I had to move into another smaller property to live in
We are now selling the rental property and my ex is demanding that she is owed 50 % of the difference between rent and the 2 mortgage payments that I have paid for 13 years
I have not asked for any allowance towards the rent of my 50% beneficial interest in the property she has lived in mortgage free for 13 years
Where do I stand in this situation I am quite happy to split the sale proceeds 50/50 on both properties although In fairness I think I am entitled to more than 50 %
Is the court likely to pick up FDR after 11 years
My ex moved into one of the properties and has lived there for the past 13 years, I lived in the other for 2 years until I could no longer afford to pay the mortgage on both properties
So I rented out the property I lived in and continued to pay the mortgage on both properties and I held on to the excess as I had to move into another smaller property to live in
We are now selling the rental property and my ex is demanding that she is owed 50 % of the difference between rent and the 2 mortgage payments that I have paid for 13 years
I have not asked for any allowance towards the rent of my 50% beneficial interest in the property she has lived in mortgage free for 13 years
Where do I stand in this situation I am quite happy to split the sale proceeds 50/50 on both properties although In fairness I think I am entitled to more than 50 %
Is the court likely to pick up FDR after 11 years
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