Hi
I am currently discussing with my ex partner (never married) about what would constitute a fair buy out of their share of a jointly owned property (tennants in common.)
When we bought the property we bought 60:40 and all fees were split 60:40 as well.
The 60:40 split was on the basis that I paid a 20% deposit and then had a joint mortgage on the remaining 80% (so 40% each.)
They moved out a few months after we bought ago the flat and I have paid the entirety of the mortgage and bills since then.
My partner is asking for their fees back (stamp duty, conveyancing etc,) and I am wondering is there any legal basis on which they can claim them? We had a verbal agreement at the time that the money was intended for the fees, but nothing written down.
I think that things are about to get a bit challenging and was wondering if there is anything else that I should watch out for?**
Thanks!
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I am currently discussing with my ex partner (never married) about what would constitute a fair buy out of their share of a jointly owned property (tennants in common.)
When we bought the property we bought 60:40 and all fees were split 60:40 as well.
The 60:40 split was on the basis that I paid a 20% deposit and then had a joint mortgage on the remaining 80% (so 40% each.)
They moved out a few months after we bought ago the flat and I have paid the entirety of the mortgage and bills since then.
My partner is asking for their fees back (stamp duty, conveyancing etc,) and I am wondering is there any legal basis on which they can claim them? We had a verbal agreement at the time that the money was intended for the fees, but nothing written down.
I think that things are about to get a bit challenging and was wondering if there is anything else that I should watch out for?**
Thanks!
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