Financial consent order

[Mct1987]

Hi, this is my first post and I would really appreciate some advice. About 4 years ago me and my then wife split up. It wasn't the nicest separation and I was quite stressed out. We went through a divorce which she sort of led really it was a DIY one. Anyway when it came to the house which had 103 thousand pound left to pay on it, my ex wife said that it had she had it valued and that there was 2000 equity in it. As I said I was very stressed and anxious at the time and just wanted everything over so I said she could keep the house. Mainly because my daughter lived there and i didn't want to disturb things when there was no real equity in it. So on the financial consent order form (I think that's what it was called) she stated that she had the house valued at 105 thousand pound and that because of the lack of equity I would sign the house over to her. Anyway the divorce went through and 2 months later she put the house up for sale and sold it 2 weeks later for 157 thousand pound. I realised right away I had been swindled. I don't believe that it was ever valued. I let it go for a long while but she has consistently horrible to me since and I've had enough of being controlled. So my question is this. If she lied and did not have it valued at that would that be fraud and could I get the consent order overturned and receive my half of the sale. Or if it was indeed valued so low would that be negligence on the part of the estate agent. My choice to sign away my house was based on the information I was given at the time which I now believe was fraudulent.

Sorry for the long message and if anyone did manage to read all this then I would really appreciate some advice.

[Amethyst]

Do you have a copy of the financial arrangements consent order that you both signed? That would be a good start point to see what you actually agreed to.

Do you know how much you purchased the house for originally and how much was mortgaged? Did she actually tell you the valuation was £105k ish or did she just say there was only £2k equity ? ( being generous it could have been a misunderstanding of equity or lack of awareness how much mortgage was outstanding at the time )

Did you actually sign the house over to her ? What happened with the mortgage ? etc

[Mct1987]

No i don't have a copy I just signed it and gave it back. I don't even know how to go about getting a copy. The house was bought for 129k 12k deposit and then payments took it down to 103k.

Yes she actually stated in the order that it had been valued at 105k and that I agreed with the lack of equity I would sign the house over to her. She then took on the rest of the mortgage but then as I say sold it 2 months after the divorce for 157k which Is not 2k.

[Mct1987]

I really would appreciate it if someone could point me in the right direction or tell me if I'm being stupid and have no grounds to make any claim against the money made from the sale of the house.

[Trev1234]

Surely if it stated it was worth £105k and then sold 2 months later for £157k then you are allowed 1/2 of the value received AFTER costs and equal mortgage payments. The form you signed stated £105k so after costs and mortgage payments, say even £10k equals £42k shared £21k. I'd suggest a "haggle" of a sum of £10k plus otherwise resort to legals (or at least ask the initial question to a lawyer). I doubt in two months something could be valued £52k more.