Hi All
I am helping my mum with her planned divorce from her husband. I will try to keep emotion out of this. He is not my father, (she divorced him for adultery many moons ago). The latest chap did not have the greatest work ethic, had been married twice before and brought a LOT of debt to the marriage plus other baggage that almost ruined my poor mother, both financially and emotionally!
So, in short, mum doesn't have much in the way of money. He has cleared off (for almost 18 months now) and it would appear is shacked up with a previous wife, but not officially, and has again left her with a lot of debt!
A solicitor did advise attempting to divorce him on the grounds of unreasonable behaviour. I don't know what constitutes that so question 1) What would constitute unreasonable behaviour, and question 2) if she were to apply for a divorce, does she need a written agreement from him that he agrees with the assertion of unreasonable behaviour, or would he be served papers from the court to agree/disagree?
The solicitor also advised getting a written agreement signed as a deed, which I think is called a Separation Agreement in England (where she lives btw as does he). I have drafted this for her and it covers all the usual headings, matrimonial home, debts, children (there are none from the marriage), spousal maintenance (none). The plan is that he walks away with nothing and looks after his own affairs, and mum walks away with pretty much nothing and walks away too.
Matrimonial Home
Mum bought a house with an interest only mortgage over 10 years ago (prior to marrying him) and next year has to pay back the loan, with no way of doing so other than selling the house. Her name alone is on the deeds (title at HM Land registry) and he features no where. The plan is that via the Separation Agreement he would waive any right to any equity that has accrued. He has contributed very little to the house payments and really has stitched mum up imo (but keeping emotions out of it - LOL).
Question 3 - Can she sell the house prior to the divorce and gift some of the equity to her sons to avoid inheritance tax, or question 4 or gift the house to one of her sons and rent from him? Or would this be a no-no with regards to a planned divorce. Legally speaking, is there anything stopping her from doing either of the above, bearing in mind the mortgage and title/deeds are solely in her name, and come mid-next year she has to sell it anyway to pay back the mortgage.
Question 5 - Assuming he agreed to sign the Separation Agreement, is it likely or indeed probable that a Judge may reverse the terms of the agreement and decide that the equity from the house should be shared?
I appreciate there are a lot of questions there but any advice/information greatly appreciated.
Cheers
I am helping my mum with her planned divorce from her husband. I will try to keep emotion out of this. He is not my father, (she divorced him for adultery many moons ago). The latest chap did not have the greatest work ethic, had been married twice before and brought a LOT of debt to the marriage plus other baggage that almost ruined my poor mother, both financially and emotionally!
So, in short, mum doesn't have much in the way of money. He has cleared off (for almost 18 months now) and it would appear is shacked up with a previous wife, but not officially, and has again left her with a lot of debt!
A solicitor did advise attempting to divorce him on the grounds of unreasonable behaviour. I don't know what constitutes that so question 1) What would constitute unreasonable behaviour, and question 2) if she were to apply for a divorce, does she need a written agreement from him that he agrees with the assertion of unreasonable behaviour, or would he be served papers from the court to agree/disagree?
The solicitor also advised getting a written agreement signed as a deed, which I think is called a Separation Agreement in England (where she lives btw as does he). I have drafted this for her and it covers all the usual headings, matrimonial home, debts, children (there are none from the marriage), spousal maintenance (none). The plan is that he walks away with nothing and looks after his own affairs, and mum walks away with pretty much nothing and walks away too.
Matrimonial Home
Mum bought a house with an interest only mortgage over 10 years ago (prior to marrying him) and next year has to pay back the loan, with no way of doing so other than selling the house. Her name alone is on the deeds (title at HM Land registry) and he features no where. The plan is that via the Separation Agreement he would waive any right to any equity that has accrued. He has contributed very little to the house payments and really has stitched mum up imo (but keeping emotions out of it - LOL).
Question 3 - Can she sell the house prior to the divorce and gift some of the equity to her sons to avoid inheritance tax, or question 4 or gift the house to one of her sons and rent from him? Or would this be a no-no with regards to a planned divorce. Legally speaking, is there anything stopping her from doing either of the above, bearing in mind the mortgage and title/deeds are solely in her name, and come mid-next year she has to sell it anyway to pay back the mortgage.
Question 5 - Assuming he agreed to sign the Separation Agreement, is it likely or indeed probable that a Judge may reverse the terms of the agreement and decide that the equity from the house should be shared?
I appreciate there are a lot of questions there but any advice/information greatly appreciated.
Cheers
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