Good afternoon
Just a query re the above. I started my current employment on 8 May so was paid by my previous employer until that date using my personal allowance. It transpires that my new employer also used my personal allowance so I have underpaid tax ( I found this out by calling HMRC). In the next month I gave my new employer my P45 but they neglected to take the M1 code off so I have also been paying month 1 tax. I am leaving their employ but as they are a school and have already run payroll they have calculated the amount I owe with leaving a week early by deducting one payslip from the other. Whilst I have no issue with paying back what I owe, how can it be correct if my tax isn't? Just very confused! Can anyone shed any light on this!!!
Thank you
Just a query re the above. I started my current employment on 8 May so was paid by my previous employer until that date using my personal allowance. It transpires that my new employer also used my personal allowance so I have underpaid tax ( I found this out by calling HMRC). In the next month I gave my new employer my P45 but they neglected to take the M1 code off so I have also been paying month 1 tax. I am leaving their employ but as they are a school and have already run payroll they have calculated the amount I owe with leaving a week early by deducting one payslip from the other. Whilst I have no issue with paying back what I owe, how can it be correct if my tax isn't? Just very confused! Can anyone shed any light on this!!!
Thank you
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