My employer is offering redundancy at 1.5 weeks times years of service. They are also paying 3 months salary in lieu of notice. However, they are capping this amount at 1 year's salary but including both the amount from the redundancy equation AND the PILON in the capped amount. As someone with 30 years service this is impacting me by several thousand pounds.
Is the company's approach legal or are redundancy and PILON two separate concepts and should be paid independently? Thanks
Is the company's approach legal or are redundancy and PILON two separate concepts and should be paid independently? Thanks
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