Hi. Sorry in advance for the lengthy post.
I work in middle management in a building firm. The firm has announced they are introducing a Drugs & Alcohol policy and randomised drugs screening. Drugs policies are a perfectly normal for our industry, but I am worried about the bullish (and seemingly ill thought out) "zero tolerance" stance the firm is taking.
The firm has a drugs policy at the moment (cobbled together from other company's policies by the looks of it). It states that employees should do no illegal drugs activity that affects their work, or do drugs on work premises. All well and good, but then it then has one line that says that substances are "not to be consumed outside of work".
I know some people in the company are light recreational cannabis users (myself included). I am totally confident that this does not affect their work, and I am totally confident that this usage happens outside of work time and away from work premises, and that they are never affected during work hours. It is also worth repeating that these are "low risk" roles. We do not go onto building sites. The only machinery they operate are laptops and the office kettle. We also have no exposure to the firm's clients - these people work in head office or at home.
I have read that the firm would need to prove that:
1. the employee's work was affected by the drug use; and that
2. the employer would have to prove that out-of-hours drug use was a health and safety risk (ie, were they to be in charge of a crane for example).
If neither of these things were provable, I've read that the firm could have a case brought against it in the event of a sacking.
So I guess I'm asking for a bit of clarity as I am finding it difficult to find any concrete information. I know we have to do the tests, that's fine. But there seems to be a grey area between "failing the test" and "court case", and any clarity from the company (or my management) is very thin on the ground.
Are company's within their rights to have "zero tolerance" policies with low-risk staff if they cannot prove when the drugs were consumed, or whether they had a negative effect on the work?
Are there legal precedents for this kind of situation?
Would they have to go all the way through to a dismissal to be able to argue our case? What usually happens in these situations?
If anyone can share their experiences or shed a little light on this it would be much appreciated. These people are loyal, long-serving and hardworking, and I worry that they are going to be unduly punished for something that has no effect on their work.
Thank you.
BB
I work in middle management in a building firm. The firm has announced they are introducing a Drugs & Alcohol policy and randomised drugs screening. Drugs policies are a perfectly normal for our industry, but I am worried about the bullish (and seemingly ill thought out) "zero tolerance" stance the firm is taking.
The firm has a drugs policy at the moment (cobbled together from other company's policies by the looks of it). It states that employees should do no illegal drugs activity that affects their work, or do drugs on work premises. All well and good, but then it then has one line that says that substances are "not to be consumed outside of work".
I know some people in the company are light recreational cannabis users (myself included). I am totally confident that this does not affect their work, and I am totally confident that this usage happens outside of work time and away from work premises, and that they are never affected during work hours. It is also worth repeating that these are "low risk" roles. We do not go onto building sites. The only machinery they operate are laptops and the office kettle. We also have no exposure to the firm's clients - these people work in head office or at home.
I have read that the firm would need to prove that:
1. the employee's work was affected by the drug use; and that
2. the employer would have to prove that out-of-hours drug use was a health and safety risk (ie, were they to be in charge of a crane for example).
If neither of these things were provable, I've read that the firm could have a case brought against it in the event of a sacking.
So I guess I'm asking for a bit of clarity as I am finding it difficult to find any concrete information. I know we have to do the tests, that's fine. But there seems to be a grey area between "failing the test" and "court case", and any clarity from the company (or my management) is very thin on the ground.
Are company's within their rights to have "zero tolerance" policies with low-risk staff if they cannot prove when the drugs were consumed, or whether they had a negative effect on the work?
Are there legal precedents for this kind of situation?
Would they have to go all the way through to a dismissal to be able to argue our case? What usually happens in these situations?
If anyone can share their experiences or shed a little light on this it would be much appreciated. These people are loyal, long-serving and hardworking, and I worry that they are going to be unduly punished for something that has no effect on their work.
Thank you.
BB
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