Hi all,
I have been working in the same company for about 15 years, the last contract I signed was in 2004. Since then my salary, role and responsibilities have changed significantly.
Around 16 months ago the company went through a significant restructure and my role was changed again into a much larger role - from no line reports to a team of around 7, control of high profile global projects as opposed to UK ones, extra hours, more pressure etc. I was told this was going to be the job and a new job role and salary was just around the corner. Some of my colleagues roles were made redundant during this process.
This went on for about 10 months, then I went on Maternity leave, which I am now halfway through.
Since being on Maternity leave it turns out there has been another restructure and they have offered me a new role. However - still no job description, contract, salary increase etc. They haven't told me if I will be managing people, for example - it's all undocumented and up in the air. And there is no set time frame for contracts/salary/job descriptions to be disclosed. They are basically stringing me on, again - it's been about 15 months now. My ideal situation would be walking away with a redundancy package.
So my questions are:
1: In terms of Customary Practice - does this supersede an out of date employment contract at all times? For example, at what point can you say that the role you are asking me to do is so different to my actual contracted role? If nothing is documented about what I do now how would this be proven or argued?
2: Would having a team for 12 months, then not having a team (all the while without changes to contracts etc) constitute as a significant change to job role? An email was sent out from management confirming my position to the rest of the team, but nothing official to me from HR.
3: How long is it realistic to be asked to perform a new role, or a different one, without an updated contract or job description? For example, my original work contract states some foreign travel possible, but I didn't have a family then. Is this still realistically binding?
4: Given the above info, would I be in a position to be able to angle for redundancy based on significant changes to my role - IE that the one I am now being offered is so different to my contracted role that it is unacceptable to me? Would it have to be different to the one i've been doing for the previous 12 months, or different to the years before that?
Thanks a lot for reading - sorry it was such a long post!
AC
I have been working in the same company for about 15 years, the last contract I signed was in 2004. Since then my salary, role and responsibilities have changed significantly.
Around 16 months ago the company went through a significant restructure and my role was changed again into a much larger role - from no line reports to a team of around 7, control of high profile global projects as opposed to UK ones, extra hours, more pressure etc. I was told this was going to be the job and a new job role and salary was just around the corner. Some of my colleagues roles were made redundant during this process.
This went on for about 10 months, then I went on Maternity leave, which I am now halfway through.
Since being on Maternity leave it turns out there has been another restructure and they have offered me a new role. However - still no job description, contract, salary increase etc. They haven't told me if I will be managing people, for example - it's all undocumented and up in the air. And there is no set time frame for contracts/salary/job descriptions to be disclosed. They are basically stringing me on, again - it's been about 15 months now. My ideal situation would be walking away with a redundancy package.
So my questions are:
1: In terms of Customary Practice - does this supersede an out of date employment contract at all times? For example, at what point can you say that the role you are asking me to do is so different to my actual contracted role? If nothing is documented about what I do now how would this be proven or argued?
2: Would having a team for 12 months, then not having a team (all the while without changes to contracts etc) constitute as a significant change to job role? An email was sent out from management confirming my position to the rest of the team, but nothing official to me from HR.
3: How long is it realistic to be asked to perform a new role, or a different one, without an updated contract or job description? For example, my original work contract states some foreign travel possible, but I didn't have a family then. Is this still realistically binding?
4: Given the above info, would I be in a position to be able to angle for redundancy based on significant changes to my role - IE that the one I am now being offered is so different to my contracted role that it is unacceptable to me? Would it have to be different to the one i've been doing for the previous 12 months, or different to the years before that?
Thanks a lot for reading - sorry it was such a long post!
AC
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