I wanted to ask some advice about possible pay discrimination at work. I have listed two issues below. I have changed the names of individuals for privacy purposes.
I work in a department with two other engineers and we each have the same job role.
One of my colleagues (Tony) was originally employed to take on a project contract and when that ended, about three years ago, was moved into our office with the same roles and responsibilities as myself and the other engineer (Ryan).
I discovered just before our last salary review that Tony is on almost £10k a year more than me £40k versus the £30k that Ryan and I are on. I do understand that because we are all the same gender and race that this disparity is legal however there do not appear to be any genuine reasons for the difference other than Tony was given an inflated salary to be taken onboard originally.
In our current roles, I have more relevant experience. I have a longer period of continual service. My output is better and I am generally seen as the most capable person in the department.
I raised the issue with my then manager at the time who agreed that there was a significant difference in the salaries and that as it was just before the salary reviews that the company would do as much as it could in my pay review to address this. In the end I was given a 2% increase which turned out to be the same across the board in the rest of the company in all departments.
However, Tony did point out that this had been the worst salary review he had received to date. In my opinion this suggests that up until this point, despite the huge disparity in pay the company had still been giving him percentage increases in line with my own and thus never attempting to bridge the gap. It almost seems that until I mentioned it the difference in salaries had been ignored.
The reason for my post is what has happened in the last few days. I am now being asked to take on some of the work that Tony has not managed to complete in time. In other words, the company recognises that he is not capable of meeting the requirements of the job and want me to take over some of his work. Do I have some legal ground here to follow as this must surely be seen as unfair treatment.
On top of that, I have been made aware that several staff members in our company are paid for their overtime. We have always been advised that overtime is only available to non-salaried employees. It turns out that many salaried employees have been given overtime pay to work longer due to recent increase in workload. This has applied to those individuals who were resistant at increased obvious overtime requirements. I say "obvious" as the overtime required was more easily quantifiable. Overtime in our department is less quantifiable as the work can vary from contract to contract. Is this also not a form of discrimination - i.e. shouldn't I also be entitled to overtime pay then?
Thanks in advance for your views and replies on this.
I work in a department with two other engineers and we each have the same job role.
One of my colleagues (Tony) was originally employed to take on a project contract and when that ended, about three years ago, was moved into our office with the same roles and responsibilities as myself and the other engineer (Ryan).
I discovered just before our last salary review that Tony is on almost £10k a year more than me £40k versus the £30k that Ryan and I are on. I do understand that because we are all the same gender and race that this disparity is legal however there do not appear to be any genuine reasons for the difference other than Tony was given an inflated salary to be taken onboard originally.
In our current roles, I have more relevant experience. I have a longer period of continual service. My output is better and I am generally seen as the most capable person in the department.
I raised the issue with my then manager at the time who agreed that there was a significant difference in the salaries and that as it was just before the salary reviews that the company would do as much as it could in my pay review to address this. In the end I was given a 2% increase which turned out to be the same across the board in the rest of the company in all departments.
However, Tony did point out that this had been the worst salary review he had received to date. In my opinion this suggests that up until this point, despite the huge disparity in pay the company had still been giving him percentage increases in line with my own and thus never attempting to bridge the gap. It almost seems that until I mentioned it the difference in salaries had been ignored.
The reason for my post is what has happened in the last few days. I am now being asked to take on some of the work that Tony has not managed to complete in time. In other words, the company recognises that he is not capable of meeting the requirements of the job and want me to take over some of his work. Do I have some legal ground here to follow as this must surely be seen as unfair treatment.
On top of that, I have been made aware that several staff members in our company are paid for their overtime. We have always been advised that overtime is only available to non-salaried employees. It turns out that many salaried employees have been given overtime pay to work longer due to recent increase in workload. This has applied to those individuals who were resistant at increased obvious overtime requirements. I say "obvious" as the overtime required was more easily quantifiable. Overtime in our department is less quantifiable as the work can vary from contract to contract. Is this also not a form of discrimination - i.e. shouldn't I also be entitled to overtime pay then?
Thanks in advance for your views and replies on this.
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