Hi everyone. I am new to the forums, but my wife and I have a problem regarding an overpayment by her employer that we need advice with. I'm afriaid it is a long story, but we are at our wits end, so here goes...
Up until October 2010 my wife was employed by a well known supplier of Security Personnel on a 2 year contract. The company themselves don't handle the payroll and this side is taken care of by an accountancy firm contracted by the company concerned. When my wifes contract finished in 2010 they had just changed payroll supplier.
When my wife received her final payslip she and another of her colleagues were contacted by the company to advise that there may have been a possible overpayment on their final wage and requested copies of all her timesheets so they could check. We checked her payslip against her hours worked (her line of work requires extremely long hours with 65+ hours a week not uncommon) and it all looked correct. We forwarded copies of her time sheets to the company as requested. We then heard nothing further on the matter over the past 2 years and assumed it was sorted out...until today.
My wife again started work for this same company on a short term 3 month contract 6 weeks ago. She received her second wage slip today (her first was correct) and has only received approximately 35% of what she was due. When she contacted the agency they advised that the deduction of 65% is for an overpayment made in October 2010.
We have not moved house, changed telephone numbers or email address in the past 7 years so there is no excuse for them not being able to contact us regarding this in tha last 2 years. Also, my wife received no warning from the company that this amount was going to be deducted prior to opening her wage slip.
I understand that if an overpayment has been made that it should be repaid - and quite rightly so, but as yet we haven't received any proof that it has. My questions are:-
Can they just deduct this amount from her wage with no warning 2 years after the event, or should they have contacted her before hand to come to an arrangement?
Do they have to provide proof that there was an overpayment before they can deduct the amount, as to date we haven't received any evidence that the overpayment exists?
If they have acted incorrectly in deducting this amount without prior warning, how do we go about correcting this?
I am sorry to trouble you all with this, but we have no idea of how to proceed. My wife is very upset and feels as though she has worked for practically nothing this past month.
Thank you for reading and your time and any advice offered is hugely appreciated.
Up until October 2010 my wife was employed by a well known supplier of Security Personnel on a 2 year contract. The company themselves don't handle the payroll and this side is taken care of by an accountancy firm contracted by the company concerned. When my wifes contract finished in 2010 they had just changed payroll supplier.
When my wife received her final payslip she and another of her colleagues were contacted by the company to advise that there may have been a possible overpayment on their final wage and requested copies of all her timesheets so they could check. We checked her payslip against her hours worked (her line of work requires extremely long hours with 65+ hours a week not uncommon) and it all looked correct. We forwarded copies of her time sheets to the company as requested. We then heard nothing further on the matter over the past 2 years and assumed it was sorted out...until today.
My wife again started work for this same company on a short term 3 month contract 6 weeks ago. She received her second wage slip today (her first was correct) and has only received approximately 35% of what she was due. When she contacted the agency they advised that the deduction of 65% is for an overpayment made in October 2010.
We have not moved house, changed telephone numbers or email address in the past 7 years so there is no excuse for them not being able to contact us regarding this in tha last 2 years. Also, my wife received no warning from the company that this amount was going to be deducted prior to opening her wage slip.
I understand that if an overpayment has been made that it should be repaid - and quite rightly so, but as yet we haven't received any proof that it has. My questions are:-
Can they just deduct this amount from her wage with no warning 2 years after the event, or should they have contacted her before hand to come to an arrangement?
Do they have to provide proof that there was an overpayment before they can deduct the amount, as to date we haven't received any evidence that the overpayment exists?
If they have acted incorrectly in deducting this amount without prior warning, how do we go about correcting this?
I am sorry to trouble you all with this, but we have no idea of how to proceed. My wife is very upset and feels as though she has worked for practically nothing this past month.
Thank you for reading and your time and any advice offered is hugely appreciated.
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