Hi everyone
My first post so please be gentle!
I am currently employed by the UK's largest distributor in a particular field and have been with the company for several years. Due to changes in working practice and personnel plus related issues in my personal life I have decided that it is time for the parting of the ways. Here's the problem...I have a restraint clause in my contract that states I cannot work for the competition in any capacity for 6 months after terminating my employment with them. When I first started with the company the restraint clause listed 2 competitors this has since increased to 17 and effectively left me nowhere to go other than to a competitor if I wanted to change jobs. I signed previous contracts and although I was not entirely happy with the restraint clause I did not envisage wanting to leave the company anyway. Things change and I have now been offered a position with a competitor (albeit with the company who I consider the least 'threat' to my current employer) but my present company is now playing 'hardball' and saying that it will invoke the restraint clause if I decide to hand in my resignation formally. The official line is that if they allow me to leave to a competitor then it opens the floodgates for other employees to follow suit. My argument with this is that a few years ago one of my colleagues (who I am still in touch with) left the company to go to the same competitor and was simply asked to work a month's notice in the warehouse. Also a senior manager was allowed to leave because it was found that he had not actually signed his contract. Has this not already set a precedent?
The present company has a habit of issuing contracts fairly regularly - maybe once or twice a year (usually to include another competitor on the restraint list or to amend the postcode areas covered by a particular sales area). These contracts are usually headed and dated for a designated period eg 1st January - 30th June or 1st February - 31st December. I asked the company to forward me my most up-to-date signed contract and they have sent one dated 1st June 2010 - 31st January 2011! Other colleagues in equal positions were asked to sign one dated June 2011 - December 2011. I suspect that they meant to send me this to sign but forgot to change the dates - would this be a get-out that the only signed contract I have is 12 months out of date? As regards knowledge of the business - I am not involved in any strategic planning decisions or party to any pricing structure. I do have knowledge of discounts offered as incentives and customer base but these are not likely to change if I am out of the market for 6 months and as the postcode areas are relatively new to me my knowledge of that customer base is not complete or exclusive. I really wish I had the courage to just hand in my notice and take my chances but realistically I cannot afford to be out of work for 6 months or face a costly court case. Please, please any advice would be much appreciated.
My first post so please be gentle!
I am currently employed by the UK's largest distributor in a particular field and have been with the company for several years. Due to changes in working practice and personnel plus related issues in my personal life I have decided that it is time for the parting of the ways. Here's the problem...I have a restraint clause in my contract that states I cannot work for the competition in any capacity for 6 months after terminating my employment with them. When I first started with the company the restraint clause listed 2 competitors this has since increased to 17 and effectively left me nowhere to go other than to a competitor if I wanted to change jobs. I signed previous contracts and although I was not entirely happy with the restraint clause I did not envisage wanting to leave the company anyway. Things change and I have now been offered a position with a competitor (albeit with the company who I consider the least 'threat' to my current employer) but my present company is now playing 'hardball' and saying that it will invoke the restraint clause if I decide to hand in my resignation formally. The official line is that if they allow me to leave to a competitor then it opens the floodgates for other employees to follow suit. My argument with this is that a few years ago one of my colleagues (who I am still in touch with) left the company to go to the same competitor and was simply asked to work a month's notice in the warehouse. Also a senior manager was allowed to leave because it was found that he had not actually signed his contract. Has this not already set a precedent?
The present company has a habit of issuing contracts fairly regularly - maybe once or twice a year (usually to include another competitor on the restraint list or to amend the postcode areas covered by a particular sales area). These contracts are usually headed and dated for a designated period eg 1st January - 30th June or 1st February - 31st December. I asked the company to forward me my most up-to-date signed contract and they have sent one dated 1st June 2010 - 31st January 2011! Other colleagues in equal positions were asked to sign one dated June 2011 - December 2011. I suspect that they meant to send me this to sign but forgot to change the dates - would this be a get-out that the only signed contract I have is 12 months out of date? As regards knowledge of the business - I am not involved in any strategic planning decisions or party to any pricing structure. I do have knowledge of discounts offered as incentives and customer base but these are not likely to change if I am out of the market for 6 months and as the postcode areas are relatively new to me my knowledge of that customer base is not complete or exclusive. I really wish I had the courage to just hand in my notice and take my chances but realistically I cannot afford to be out of work for 6 months or face a costly court case. Please, please any advice would be much appreciated.
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