Background:
We are a small shop with 6 employees. Most of them are beyond State Retirement age and are employed as shop assistants..
One particular member of staff aged, 69 suffered serious back problems that resulted in an operation some weeks following her absence for the injury.
At this stage I emphasise that her injury wasn't caused as a result of her work. Her contract was as a part time employee doing only 2 days a week which was to be agreed on an ad-hoc basis between myself and her, as circumstances demanded.
Her work is of a nature where she needs to climb stairs several times a day, often several times an hour, carrying items of stock between the shop showroom and the stockroom upstairs, moving stock around that is often quite strenuous and bending, stretching and lifting to reach stock and assisting customers often at ground level bending on her knees when they try on shoes and need alterations to be assessed on the length of dresses.
Due to the nature of her back injury her medical status was incompatible with her duties and it would not have been possible to allocate a less strenuous job as there just isn't one.
After an absence of some months when there was no indication that she was ever going to return to work she was given her P60 for the year just completed and a P45 to terminate her employment. Her period of absence started on 27th September 2010 and she was given her P45 dated 1st May 2011.
Her holiday and sickness pay was calculated and paid to her.
She is now proceeding a claim for unfair dismissal together with a claim for payment in lieu of notice for 5 weeks and holiday pay of another week and has started proceedings for an Employment Tribunal.
At no time did this employee even bother to provide a medical certificate (sick note) to advise of her illness/injury in compliance with the terms of her contract.
I was partially aware of her medical status as I run the shop on a very friendly basis, each member being treated more like family with every one of them being given Xmas and birthday gifts, Easter bouquets of flowers etc.
I often do personal running around for them such as collecting them from their home to take to work or take home afterwards and arrange a Xmas night out for us all at my expense. My personal generosity to them is such that often my employees get favoured beyond my own family. I regularly move working days to satisfgy any person who needs a day off to do something, often to my own personal disadvantage. In other words I do my best to keep my staff happy.
Each year this member of staff was given a Xmas gift and card as well as a Xmas present I sent to her young grandson who visited the shop with her on occasion. She also got birthday gifts and other gifts as the year went on. Even at the time of handing her her P60 just a week or so before termination, she was given a bouquet of flowers and her grandson a gift
I never favour any member of staff any more than another and all of them are disgusted that this ex member has taken the action she has.
There are 2 things I need to seek advice on here.
Given that I didn't receive any medical certificate am I correct in saying that the holiday pay is limited to the period prior to the employee absenting herself from work with the injury, as a requirement of the employment contract is such that sick pay is only paid after a period of 7 consecutive days absence when a sick note is presented to me. I believe that the employee is claiming sick pay beyond that date up until the end of the year.
Further to that, was I wrong in dismissing this employee? I received no update on her medical condition except by word of mouth from third parties and on a personal visit by her on a single occasion following her operation. At no time was I advised that her medical status was such that she could recommence work at any stage and therefore left me with no alternative other than to terminate her employment. Was this wrong?
The Contract of Employment has a laid down procedure within it for termination, however this particular reason for termination is not a "standard" reason as this employee has never given any required reason for absence in the way of a sick note, nor given any idea of any expectation of her likelihood of being able to recommence her duties. The "standard reason" I point to is such that there was nothing within any personal circumstances that the employer could have satisfactorily improved. I mean, if absence itself was a reason, a written warning or other procedural warning could have been issued expecting some sort of improvement. However when an employee is injured to the point of not being able to recommence their employment is it not correct that I can only assume that keeping her on an unpaid basis on the books for as long as she was off work, maybe even until death, by old age, would be unreasonable.
I suppose that it may have been naive to terminate without following the terms of the contract however is it actually acceptable to terminate when the well-being of the employee is the prime consideration. I would have hated to take the employee back (although it's unlikely she would have been able to come back anyway) only to find she suffered further injury due to the nature of her duties, which potentially could result in a compensation claim of injury due to her work.
Should I have done something different to put in place a more legislative? dismissal procedure?
I think I may have also heard or read something from the Government about relaxing the enforcement on Employment law for smaller employers where such legislative requirements can be restrictive or the actio0n taken is non malicious etc. If I'm not mistaken I think they suggested a common-sense approach to unwitting breaches. Any ideas on this?
I am of the opinion that even now, some months following her operation, she would not be able to carry out her duties without potential risk to her back, bearing in mind her age. Prior to her injury she had, in fact been passing off her duties to other members of staff in the shop when it came to her being required to do anything requiring some effort.
Would there be any mitigation by referring to the fact that all payment of her NIC's and PAYE during her employment was made by myself rather than deducting it from her wages? This would at least show that I have been generous and considerate in her employment and would be unlikely to dismiss anyone without due cause.
We are a small shop with 6 employees. Most of them are beyond State Retirement age and are employed as shop assistants..
One particular member of staff aged, 69 suffered serious back problems that resulted in an operation some weeks following her absence for the injury.
At this stage I emphasise that her injury wasn't caused as a result of her work. Her contract was as a part time employee doing only 2 days a week which was to be agreed on an ad-hoc basis between myself and her, as circumstances demanded.
Her work is of a nature where she needs to climb stairs several times a day, often several times an hour, carrying items of stock between the shop showroom and the stockroom upstairs, moving stock around that is often quite strenuous and bending, stretching and lifting to reach stock and assisting customers often at ground level bending on her knees when they try on shoes and need alterations to be assessed on the length of dresses.
Due to the nature of her back injury her medical status was incompatible with her duties and it would not have been possible to allocate a less strenuous job as there just isn't one.
After an absence of some months when there was no indication that she was ever going to return to work she was given her P60 for the year just completed and a P45 to terminate her employment. Her period of absence started on 27th September 2010 and she was given her P45 dated 1st May 2011.
Her holiday and sickness pay was calculated and paid to her.
She is now proceeding a claim for unfair dismissal together with a claim for payment in lieu of notice for 5 weeks and holiday pay of another week and has started proceedings for an Employment Tribunal.
At no time did this employee even bother to provide a medical certificate (sick note) to advise of her illness/injury in compliance with the terms of her contract.
I was partially aware of her medical status as I run the shop on a very friendly basis, each member being treated more like family with every one of them being given Xmas and birthday gifts, Easter bouquets of flowers etc.
I often do personal running around for them such as collecting them from their home to take to work or take home afterwards and arrange a Xmas night out for us all at my expense. My personal generosity to them is such that often my employees get favoured beyond my own family. I regularly move working days to satisfgy any person who needs a day off to do something, often to my own personal disadvantage. In other words I do my best to keep my staff happy.
Each year this member of staff was given a Xmas gift and card as well as a Xmas present I sent to her young grandson who visited the shop with her on occasion. She also got birthday gifts and other gifts as the year went on. Even at the time of handing her her P60 just a week or so before termination, she was given a bouquet of flowers and her grandson a gift
I never favour any member of staff any more than another and all of them are disgusted that this ex member has taken the action she has.
There are 2 things I need to seek advice on here.
Given that I didn't receive any medical certificate am I correct in saying that the holiday pay is limited to the period prior to the employee absenting herself from work with the injury, as a requirement of the employment contract is such that sick pay is only paid after a period of 7 consecutive days absence when a sick note is presented to me. I believe that the employee is claiming sick pay beyond that date up until the end of the year.
Further to that, was I wrong in dismissing this employee? I received no update on her medical condition except by word of mouth from third parties and on a personal visit by her on a single occasion following her operation. At no time was I advised that her medical status was such that she could recommence work at any stage and therefore left me with no alternative other than to terminate her employment. Was this wrong?
The Contract of Employment has a laid down procedure within it for termination, however this particular reason for termination is not a "standard" reason as this employee has never given any required reason for absence in the way of a sick note, nor given any idea of any expectation of her likelihood of being able to recommence her duties. The "standard reason" I point to is such that there was nothing within any personal circumstances that the employer could have satisfactorily improved. I mean, if absence itself was a reason, a written warning or other procedural warning could have been issued expecting some sort of improvement. However when an employee is injured to the point of not being able to recommence their employment is it not correct that I can only assume that keeping her on an unpaid basis on the books for as long as she was off work, maybe even until death, by old age, would be unreasonable.
I suppose that it may have been naive to terminate without following the terms of the contract however is it actually acceptable to terminate when the well-being of the employee is the prime consideration. I would have hated to take the employee back (although it's unlikely she would have been able to come back anyway) only to find she suffered further injury due to the nature of her duties, which potentially could result in a compensation claim of injury due to her work.
Should I have done something different to put in place a more legislative? dismissal procedure?
I think I may have also heard or read something from the Government about relaxing the enforcement on Employment law for smaller employers where such legislative requirements can be restrictive or the actio0n taken is non malicious etc. If I'm not mistaken I think they suggested a common-sense approach to unwitting breaches. Any ideas on this?
I am of the opinion that even now, some months following her operation, she would not be able to carry out her duties without potential risk to her back, bearing in mind her age. Prior to her injury she had, in fact been passing off her duties to other members of staff in the shop when it came to her being required to do anything requiring some effort.
Would there be any mitigation by referring to the fact that all payment of her NIC's and PAYE during her employment was made by myself rather than deducting it from her wages? This would at least show that I have been generous and considerate in her employment and would be unlikely to dismiss anyone without due cause.
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