Hello All,
A first time post for me in this forum so 'Hi everyone!'
I came across this forum as I have a scenario where it doesn't quite make sense to me. in mid-Q1 this year, I was made redundant by my employer, they cited a justification of not needing to resource in the UK and instead the role will be moved to India. After many months and having officially left near end of Q2, I've come to learn that they didn't do this. Our original structure was 2 people (myself and my colleague who was effectively in charge in all but name) and a manager (who didn't do anything but 'managed' us - literally). Once I left the company, I found out that they switched the managers about (another resource in the same dept became manager, which also in all but name demoted by colleague into the same capacity I had). My position was then 'filled' by a part-time employee. All of these movements are of the same grade and in the same location of London....
My limited understanding of redundancy rules in the UK was that the employer cannot replace you with a direct equivalent in the same location (or words similar to that effect)? Does the above seem legitimate? Ultimately, I as well as everyone knew it was politically motivated and targeted - what has transpired shows as much. Ever since I heard about this, it's made me wonder; IS that actually fine in the eyes of the law?
Thanks all in advance!
A first time post for me in this forum so 'Hi everyone!'
I came across this forum as I have a scenario where it doesn't quite make sense to me. in mid-Q1 this year, I was made redundant by my employer, they cited a justification of not needing to resource in the UK and instead the role will be moved to India. After many months and having officially left near end of Q2, I've come to learn that they didn't do this. Our original structure was 2 people (myself and my colleague who was effectively in charge in all but name) and a manager (who didn't do anything but 'managed' us - literally). Once I left the company, I found out that they switched the managers about (another resource in the same dept became manager, which also in all but name demoted by colleague into the same capacity I had). My position was then 'filled' by a part-time employee. All of these movements are of the same grade and in the same location of London....
My limited understanding of redundancy rules in the UK was that the employer cannot replace you with a direct equivalent in the same location (or words similar to that effect)? Does the above seem legitimate? Ultimately, I as well as everyone knew it was politically motivated and targeted - what has transpired shows as much. Ever since I heard about this, it's made me wonder; IS that actually fine in the eyes of the law?
Thanks all in advance!
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