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Good morning hope you can help.
I am in my third month working for a company.
My start date was 2nd April and this was agreed when I took the job and signed my contract etc.
However the week before the company called me and told me that I would not be needed the following week as they were behind with a project and I would start the following week.
I had already been in for an induction day and had my laptop and various other training manuals.
I was told to go through these, learn the systems and familiarise myself with all the software systems which were set up for me to do this.
The same thing happened the week after and my start date in the office was pushed back another week, although I did go in for around 4hrs one day to be introduced to my colleagues and have some fire training.
The rest of her week I was again told to familiarise myself and create dummy tasks and events in the system for practise which I did.
The following week (15th April) I was told all was ok and I should attend the office as normal as my manager and office area were now ready for me.
however, at the end of the month I was in for a little bit of a shock when I looked at my pay packet and thought I had been docked for those first two weeks
When I queried this with my line manager, I was told that I had not attended the workplace and had not fully started therefore I was not entitled to payment.
I explained that it was not my fault and that my contract started from the 2nd of April and during that time I have been working on training myself, which is what they had requested me to do.
Obviously this went down like a lead balloon!
So my question is, am I in the wrong here?
I signed my contract and have a set start day in there (2nd April). I was ready to start from that date and turn down several other jobs to take this one.
It was not my fault t that they were not ready for me, I was available and under contract for that date. I also undertook training and attended the office one day so it’s not like I was away on Holiday then.
So now I am out of pocket for two weeks, my contract says I started that day and I believe I did enough work to justify the pay.
To be honest I actually feel it’s irrelevant what I did, my contract says I am employed so I should be paid.
This had already been delayed from February to March by them and was not employed or earning then, although had not signed my contract.
So I missed out on two months there and it’s been really hard financially.
There is no HR as a small company and both my line manager and the owner say I am not entitled to it as a major part of my job is being in the office and meeting clients.
Can anyone advise if I am being unreasonable with this?
Am I legally entitled to payment as I was employed and under contract for that time?
Thankyou in advance!
I am in my third month working for a company.
My start date was 2nd April and this was agreed when I took the job and signed my contract etc.
However the week before the company called me and told me that I would not be needed the following week as they were behind with a project and I would start the following week.
I had already been in for an induction day and had my laptop and various other training manuals.
I was told to go through these, learn the systems and familiarise myself with all the software systems which were set up for me to do this.
The same thing happened the week after and my start date in the office was pushed back another week, although I did go in for around 4hrs one day to be introduced to my colleagues and have some fire training.
The rest of her week I was again told to familiarise myself and create dummy tasks and events in the system for practise which I did.
The following week (15th April) I was told all was ok and I should attend the office as normal as my manager and office area were now ready for me.
however, at the end of the month I was in for a little bit of a shock when I looked at my pay packet and thought I had been docked for those first two weeks
When I queried this with my line manager, I was told that I had not attended the workplace and had not fully started therefore I was not entitled to payment.
I explained that it was not my fault and that my contract started from the 2nd of April and during that time I have been working on training myself, which is what they had requested me to do.
Obviously this went down like a lead balloon!
So my question is, am I in the wrong here?
I signed my contract and have a set start day in there (2nd April). I was ready to start from that date and turn down several other jobs to take this one.
It was not my fault t that they were not ready for me, I was available and under contract for that date. I also undertook training and attended the office one day so it’s not like I was away on Holiday then.
So now I am out of pocket for two weeks, my contract says I started that day and I believe I did enough work to justify the pay.
To be honest I actually feel it’s irrelevant what I did, my contract says I am employed so I should be paid.
This had already been delayed from February to March by them and was not employed or earning then, although had not signed my contract.
So I missed out on two months there and it’s been really hard financially.
There is no HR as a small company and both my line manager and the owner say I am not entitled to it as a major part of my job is being in the office and meeting clients.
Can anyone advise if I am being unreasonable with this?
Am I legally entitled to payment as I was employed and under contract for that time?
Thankyou in advance!
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