Hi all,
I'm hoping someone can help me with some concerns I have - I'll provide some context first and then finish with my questions. I'm grateful to all that take the time to read this and provide me with feedback, as I know how busy life is.
Context:
The company I work for has a contract it delivers in Germany for a UK Client (I'll refer to this as a works contract going forwards) - I work for the company (not the client) on this works contract. My job title specifically reflects the German works contract and I spend 100% of my time on it. However, my employment contract with the company is UK based, i.e. I’m paid in GBP, my T&C’s are all in English and my line manager / place of work is in the UK.
Back in 2016, the works contract was going through a drawdown process to the point where all employees expected it to end in 2018 with the final closure of the estate. To retain staff, the company I work for offered a very generous severance and retention package. Without going into detail, the retention bonus was honoured and I received this over a year ago. In regards to the severance package, the Terms allow for a far more favourable payout than I would receive from a UK statutory redundancy payment. Specifically, the company have to pay me a 6 months notice period plus one months salary for every year of my employment (I’ve been with the company for 14 years so far) - they also have to pay a final redundancy support amount as a lump sum.
I am quite secure that the Terms I’ve signed are robust - one individual was made redundant just over a year ago and he received his full severance package (like me, he was UK based with a UK line manager etc.) so in my mind the precedent has been set. That being said, I do have some concerns, and whilst I’m quite competent with contractual agreements, I do not have a legal degree nor do I have experience in HR matters, so I’m hoping I can obtain some guidance/advice from any experts in these areas.
Questions:
(1) Our client is currently tendering the Germany works contract (as it is no longer ending) - if the company I work for is unsuccessful, I believe I will be afforded the right to TUPE, however, my line manager has already suggested that I may be needed to work on other works contracts within the business soon. They haven’t suggested new Terms to me, but If I work on these other works contracts, am I automatically going to void my current agreement… i.e. could it be argued that I am no longer working 100% on the Germany works contract? Equally, am I going to jeopardise my right to TUPE?
(2) If the business I work for chooses not to tender for the new Germany works contract, or fails to win it, and the company I work for now subsequently offers me a new role with new Terms, would I automatically be made redundant under my current Terms if I refused their offer, or could they argue that I’m making myself unemployed by not accepting and therefore am not being made redundant and thus not eligible for the agreed severance package?
(3) If I do end up moving to another company via TUPE, I understand they would have to honour my existing Terms… or, will the new company have a right to refuse my severance package if they choose to make me redundant seeing as they didn’t agree the Terms initially?
My Thoughts:
I would think that the law should protect me, as I shouldn't be forced to accept new Terms just to relieve a company of their obligation to pay me an agreed sum, nor should any company I TUPE to have the ability to circumvent this agreement regardless of the fact that they were not involved in setting the Terms in question. My fear is (a) that I'm wrong and I'm missing some legal precedent that would mean they could refuse and (b) that if I'm asked to help in other areas of the business then this could void my current agreement (or if I refuse to help in other areas of the business, I could be perhaps fired and then lose all rights).
I hope someone can help alleviate me fears?
Thanks in advance.
I'm hoping someone can help me with some concerns I have - I'll provide some context first and then finish with my questions. I'm grateful to all that take the time to read this and provide me with feedback, as I know how busy life is.
Context:
The company I work for has a contract it delivers in Germany for a UK Client (I'll refer to this as a works contract going forwards) - I work for the company (not the client) on this works contract. My job title specifically reflects the German works contract and I spend 100% of my time on it. However, my employment contract with the company is UK based, i.e. I’m paid in GBP, my T&C’s are all in English and my line manager / place of work is in the UK.
Back in 2016, the works contract was going through a drawdown process to the point where all employees expected it to end in 2018 with the final closure of the estate. To retain staff, the company I work for offered a very generous severance and retention package. Without going into detail, the retention bonus was honoured and I received this over a year ago. In regards to the severance package, the Terms allow for a far more favourable payout than I would receive from a UK statutory redundancy payment. Specifically, the company have to pay me a 6 months notice period plus one months salary for every year of my employment (I’ve been with the company for 14 years so far) - they also have to pay a final redundancy support amount as a lump sum.
I am quite secure that the Terms I’ve signed are robust - one individual was made redundant just over a year ago and he received his full severance package (like me, he was UK based with a UK line manager etc.) so in my mind the precedent has been set. That being said, I do have some concerns, and whilst I’m quite competent with contractual agreements, I do not have a legal degree nor do I have experience in HR matters, so I’m hoping I can obtain some guidance/advice from any experts in these areas.
Questions:
(1) Our client is currently tendering the Germany works contract (as it is no longer ending) - if the company I work for is unsuccessful, I believe I will be afforded the right to TUPE, however, my line manager has already suggested that I may be needed to work on other works contracts within the business soon. They haven’t suggested new Terms to me, but If I work on these other works contracts, am I automatically going to void my current agreement… i.e. could it be argued that I am no longer working 100% on the Germany works contract? Equally, am I going to jeopardise my right to TUPE?
(2) If the business I work for chooses not to tender for the new Germany works contract, or fails to win it, and the company I work for now subsequently offers me a new role with new Terms, would I automatically be made redundant under my current Terms if I refused their offer, or could they argue that I’m making myself unemployed by not accepting and therefore am not being made redundant and thus not eligible for the agreed severance package?
(3) If I do end up moving to another company via TUPE, I understand they would have to honour my existing Terms… or, will the new company have a right to refuse my severance package if they choose to make me redundant seeing as they didn’t agree the Terms initially?
My Thoughts:
I would think that the law should protect me, as I shouldn't be forced to accept new Terms just to relieve a company of their obligation to pay me an agreed sum, nor should any company I TUPE to have the ability to circumvent this agreement regardless of the fact that they were not involved in setting the Terms in question. My fear is (a) that I'm wrong and I'm missing some legal precedent that would mean they could refuse and (b) that if I'm asked to help in other areas of the business then this could void my current agreement (or if I refuse to help in other areas of the business, I could be perhaps fired and then lose all rights).
I hope someone can help alleviate me fears?
Thanks in advance.
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