Good afternoon everyone
I would appreciate some guidance on how to approach the issue of overpayment of salary by a former employer.
I left my previous role in October 2020, under good terms, to take up an offer of a new role elsewhere with better salary, etc. At the time of my departure, the organisation (a large and well resourced institution) were making many thousands of redundancies in response to the financial pressures of Coronavirus. As a result, my line manager agreed for my to leave quite quickly - 3 weeks notice - rather than my contractual 3 months of notice. Which I thought was very kind, although I never asked for it.
So it goes without saying hat the payroll and HR departments would have been under a lot of stress.
After leaving, I received what I thought was a final salary payment in November. It was circa two-thirds of a "normal" amount in a "normal" month. Accounting for accrued untaken annual leave etc, it looked about right. I didn't have a payslip to cross-reference it to, and assumed on would arrive imminently.
A few weeks passed. No payslip. No P45. I put it down to Coronavirus pressures and the Xmas holiday, and assumed it would all work out in early January. This is a big employer, not cowboys, and they keep their paperwork in order.
In January, I received a payment from my previous employer on their regular payday. Equivalent to a full month of salary. I checked my account history, and see that I received a full payment in December also.
I immediately contacted my former employer - my previous line manager, HR manager, and payroll dept (so three distinct calls) - to query why I was receiving money that I was not expecting. They told me they would look into it. They raised the possibility that I may have been given PILON, which I had not been expecting, but would be a bonus to me if it happened. In the meantime, I popped the unexpected amount into a suspense account to avoid the temptation to spend it in case it had to go back.
I received a letter from the payroll department in early February, confirming:
The date my employment ended (end of October 2020)
Reason for leaving
etc.
It included a generic statement about receiving any final payments in the February pay run, and that they would make contact if there were any overpayments.
February pay day rolled round, no more payments. In my mind, everything had been sorted, so I sat back and waited for my P45 and old payslips to arrive.
March came - no contact. No P45. No payslips.
April came - no contact. No P45. No payslips.
I began to wonder whether I was, indeed, entitled to the money that I thought had been overpaid.
May came. I check my online tax account because we're in a new tax year and I like to keep on top of these things. Owing to the unexpected windfall in Nov, Dec, Jan, HMRC say I owe them a few hundred pounds more in tax because my previous tax code was based on an estimate, and I wasn't expecting to be paid by 2 employers for a whole quarter. They have made an adjustment to my tax code. A bit annoying, but fair.
I also transferred my accrued pension from the scheme administered by my old employer, to the scheme administered by my current employer. Again, because I like to keep on top of these things. The transfer went through without a hitch.
Then BOOM! - HR contact me at the end of last week to discuss the "overpayment of salary". Apparently, they have sent me letters trying to start a conversation, but I haven't received anything. (I'm not the sort of person who ignores letters.) I speak with HR, who tell me it's possible they went to my work email address. From the job I left 6 months ago.... I start to reassess my previous assumption that this organisation is on top of administration.
They're going to email me pdfs of the letter apparently. But it's been 3 days and I've not received anything.
Anyway. This leaves me in a bit of a pickle.
1. How can I discuss an "overpayment of salary" - when I don't have payslips to refer to? Or a P45 confirming what they paid me in that employment? Or a P60 for that matter?
2. What on earth do I do about the pension fund that I have now transferred? I can't get that money "out" of a new scheme - so if they want me to repay 2 months of employee + employer pension contributions then I will encounter a cashflow problem.
3. What about my underpayment of tax? How long should I personally be expected to take the cashflow impact of their mistake?
So now I'm wondering
1. Can I successfully argue that, in the absence of written evidence of the contrary, it was reasonable for me to assume that that payments received in December and January were indeed PILON?
2. Pension contributions - I have no idea where I stand on this front.
As a final note, it's worth mentioning that at no point have I used the phrase "overpayment" and have always said "payments I was not expecting".
Oh, and I'm leaving the country in 6 weeks for a 3-year work contract. So I could always do a runner....
I would appreciate some guidance on how to approach the issue of overpayment of salary by a former employer.
I left my previous role in October 2020, under good terms, to take up an offer of a new role elsewhere with better salary, etc. At the time of my departure, the organisation (a large and well resourced institution) were making many thousands of redundancies in response to the financial pressures of Coronavirus. As a result, my line manager agreed for my to leave quite quickly - 3 weeks notice - rather than my contractual 3 months of notice. Which I thought was very kind, although I never asked for it.
So it goes without saying hat the payroll and HR departments would have been under a lot of stress.
After leaving, I received what I thought was a final salary payment in November. It was circa two-thirds of a "normal" amount in a "normal" month. Accounting for accrued untaken annual leave etc, it looked about right. I didn't have a payslip to cross-reference it to, and assumed on would arrive imminently.
A few weeks passed. No payslip. No P45. I put it down to Coronavirus pressures and the Xmas holiday, and assumed it would all work out in early January. This is a big employer, not cowboys, and they keep their paperwork in order.
In January, I received a payment from my previous employer on their regular payday. Equivalent to a full month of salary. I checked my account history, and see that I received a full payment in December also.
I immediately contacted my former employer - my previous line manager, HR manager, and payroll dept (so three distinct calls) - to query why I was receiving money that I was not expecting. They told me they would look into it. They raised the possibility that I may have been given PILON, which I had not been expecting, but would be a bonus to me if it happened. In the meantime, I popped the unexpected amount into a suspense account to avoid the temptation to spend it in case it had to go back.
I received a letter from the payroll department in early February, confirming:
The date my employment ended (end of October 2020)
Reason for leaving
etc.
It included a generic statement about receiving any final payments in the February pay run, and that they would make contact if there were any overpayments.
February pay day rolled round, no more payments. In my mind, everything had been sorted, so I sat back and waited for my P45 and old payslips to arrive.
March came - no contact. No P45. No payslips.
April came - no contact. No P45. No payslips.
I began to wonder whether I was, indeed, entitled to the money that I thought had been overpaid.
May came. I check my online tax account because we're in a new tax year and I like to keep on top of these things. Owing to the unexpected windfall in Nov, Dec, Jan, HMRC say I owe them a few hundred pounds more in tax because my previous tax code was based on an estimate, and I wasn't expecting to be paid by 2 employers for a whole quarter. They have made an adjustment to my tax code. A bit annoying, but fair.
I also transferred my accrued pension from the scheme administered by my old employer, to the scheme administered by my current employer. Again, because I like to keep on top of these things. The transfer went through without a hitch.
Then BOOM! - HR contact me at the end of last week to discuss the "overpayment of salary". Apparently, they have sent me letters trying to start a conversation, but I haven't received anything. (I'm not the sort of person who ignores letters.) I speak with HR, who tell me it's possible they went to my work email address. From the job I left 6 months ago.... I start to reassess my previous assumption that this organisation is on top of administration.
They're going to email me pdfs of the letter apparently. But it's been 3 days and I've not received anything.
Anyway. This leaves me in a bit of a pickle.
1. How can I discuss an "overpayment of salary" - when I don't have payslips to refer to? Or a P45 confirming what they paid me in that employment? Or a P60 for that matter?
2. What on earth do I do about the pension fund that I have now transferred? I can't get that money "out" of a new scheme - so if they want me to repay 2 months of employee + employer pension contributions then I will encounter a cashflow problem.
3. What about my underpayment of tax? How long should I personally be expected to take the cashflow impact of their mistake?
So now I'm wondering
1. Can I successfully argue that, in the absence of written evidence of the contrary, it was reasonable for me to assume that that payments received in December and January were indeed PILON?
2. Pension contributions - I have no idea where I stand on this front.
As a final note, it's worth mentioning that at no point have I used the phrase "overpayment" and have always said "payments I was not expecting".
Oh, and I'm leaving the country in 6 weeks for a 3-year work contract. So I could always do a runner....
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