Cabot, as has been reported on here, are apparently now only claiming arrears on credit card claims, even though these arrears total the full amount payable. They say they are justified because:
Now I am a disadvantage here, because being unable to get hold of a copy of the said tome, I am not sure if this is Cabots normal trick of only quoting parts that help them, and leaving out words that give the statement a different meaning.
I am guessing that Goode is referring to the arrears notices prior to issuing a DN. But what if a DN is issued (but not received) and a default is registered on your account (proving that a DN must have been issued), surely they then have to comply with with CCA 1974 and either provide a copy of that DN or proof that it was sent?
Any help would be appreciated.
Alan
Goode: Consumer Credit Law and Practice - Issue 27, where it apparently discusses the .... need for the service of a Default Notice at IIB[5.167]. It states Section 87 and 88 "apply only where the creditor wishes to take one of the steps specified [in section 87 (1) (a) to (e)] as soon as the period for compliance with the Default Notice has expired. A notice is not required where the creditor simply demands payment for arrears, with or without contractual interest"
I am guessing that Goode is referring to the arrears notices prior to issuing a DN. But what if a DN is issued (but not received) and a default is registered on your account (proving that a DN must have been issued), surely they then have to comply with with CCA 1974 and either provide a copy of that DN or proof that it was sent?
Any help would be appreciated.
Alan
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