I am hoping I can get some advice here - I am in court in a few days to try to get a CCJ set aside as the applicants solicitors instructed me not submit the acknowledgement of service whilst they sought instruction from the applicant - both were aware I intended to defend. However, the main arguement is one far deeper!
Sainsburys Bank (confirmed in writing) wrote off the balance of a debt in June 2104 after I requested this the month before. They have written to me stating"" As we'd been unable to collect payments we wrote off the outstanding balance on 25th June 2014. We updated the credit reference agencies to confirm the account was closed and settled in full."
On the back of this I have obtained a mortgage. I found out that 2 years and 3 months later they sold the debt to Cabot Financial UK Limited. I understand that they can sell a debt to settle an account but this is not what happened. They confirmed it was written off and sold, the account closed and settled in full. (my credit file recorded the account balance as "£0" and the defaults stopped and the debt as delinguent.
My arguement is that they have sold over two years later a closed account with a zero balance and that the sale was not in any way related to the closure of the account. Surely legally the two transactions have to be linked in some capacity ? I had other debts on my credit report and my mortgage lender insisted that I was clear of debt to achieve the mortgage. There is no way it can be claimed that this debt was settled by it's sale to Cabot as they were 27 months apart.
I really need to understand what legislation is in place surrounding this. I believe Sainsburys have mis-sold this and Cabots action should be directed to them and not me.
Sainsburys Bank (confirmed in writing) wrote off the balance of a debt in June 2104 after I requested this the month before. They have written to me stating"" As we'd been unable to collect payments we wrote off the outstanding balance on 25th June 2014. We updated the credit reference agencies to confirm the account was closed and settled in full."
On the back of this I have obtained a mortgage. I found out that 2 years and 3 months later they sold the debt to Cabot Financial UK Limited. I understand that they can sell a debt to settle an account but this is not what happened. They confirmed it was written off and sold, the account closed and settled in full. (my credit file recorded the account balance as "£0" and the defaults stopped and the debt as delinguent.
My arguement is that they have sold over two years later a closed account with a zero balance and that the sale was not in any way related to the closure of the account. Surely legally the two transactions have to be linked in some capacity ? I had other debts on my credit report and my mortgage lender insisted that I was clear of debt to achieve the mortgage. There is no way it can be claimed that this debt was settled by it's sale to Cabot as they were 27 months apart.
I really need to understand what legislation is in place surrounding this. I believe Sainsburys have mis-sold this and Cabots action should be directed to them and not me.
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