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Hi everyone,
I have received a court claim form from Restons solicitors regarding an old credit card debt from some years ago. The sum on the Particulars of Claim section says ("under a contract between the Defendant(s) and Barclaycard dated on or about Mar 18 2011 and assigned to the Claimant on Mar 11 2015") yet the Issue Date on the claim form is 20th April 2017 which is clearly just over six years from Mar 18 2011 - is this them basically admitting on their claim form that the alleged debt is already statute barred? The actual Claimant is Cabot.
I have acknowledged the claim on Moneyclaim online but haven't entered a defence yet as I am a little unsure how to frame it. I have let a few days elapse since acknowledging the claim though...Do I still send the CPR/CCA requests to Cabot/Restons or should I ask directly for their claim to be struck out on the grounds that the alleged debt is statute barred and unenforceable through the courts?
If this is the case (I believe it to be) then will the court ask the Claimant to prove otherwise?
Many thanks in advance to anyone who replies.
I have received a court claim form from Restons solicitors regarding an old credit card debt from some years ago. The sum on the Particulars of Claim section says ("under a contract between the Defendant(s) and Barclaycard dated on or about Mar 18 2011 and assigned to the Claimant on Mar 11 2015") yet the Issue Date on the claim form is 20th April 2017 which is clearly just over six years from Mar 18 2011 - is this them basically admitting on their claim form that the alleged debt is already statute barred? The actual Claimant is Cabot.
I have acknowledged the claim on Moneyclaim online but haven't entered a defence yet as I am a little unsure how to frame it. I have let a few days elapse since acknowledging the claim though...Do I still send the CPR/CCA requests to Cabot/Restons or should I ask directly for their claim to be struck out on the grounds that the alleged debt is statute barred and unenforceable through the courts?
If this is the case (I believe it to be) then will the court ask the Claimant to prove otherwise?
Many thanks in advance to anyone who replies.
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