Hi all,
I have a question I cannot find an absolute answer to, does a default date carry any relevance in accessing the cause of action for a statute barred defence under s.5 Limitations Act?
The reason I ask is that a DCA is chasing me for a credit card debt I apparently owe that was opened back in 8th July 2008 and a default date was entered against me recently (only appeared recently anyway) dated 9th March 2009. The has been no legal action taken at the moment as the account has been entered into dispute whilst they satisfy my CCA request.
I 100% never made any payment to this debt and sent a letter to the DCA agency stating that I have no record of the credit card debt plus seeing as no payment or acknowledgement would have been made means the debt it statute barred anyway.
I received a response saying that the debt is not statute barred as the default date is March 2009.
Now to my knowledge the cause of action accrued when contractual payments were missed not when a default date was entered. So cause of action was e.g August/September 2008 + statute barred 6 years no written contact or payment = August/September 2014 = this debt is statue barred. The debt collector is saying default date March 2009 + 6 years = March 2015 = Statute barred
Who is right? Is there any credible legal guidance for this? Lastly seeing as no payment has ever been made on this account is the default date of 9th March 2009 correct in any case considering the account was apparently opened 8th June?
Thank you!
I have a question I cannot find an absolute answer to, does a default date carry any relevance in accessing the cause of action for a statute barred defence under s.5 Limitations Act?
The reason I ask is that a DCA is chasing me for a credit card debt I apparently owe that was opened back in 8th July 2008 and a default date was entered against me recently (only appeared recently anyway) dated 9th March 2009. The has been no legal action taken at the moment as the account has been entered into dispute whilst they satisfy my CCA request.
I 100% never made any payment to this debt and sent a letter to the DCA agency stating that I have no record of the credit card debt plus seeing as no payment or acknowledgement would have been made means the debt it statute barred anyway.
I received a response saying that the debt is not statute barred as the default date is March 2009.
Now to my knowledge the cause of action accrued when contractual payments were missed not when a default date was entered. So cause of action was e.g August/September 2008 + statute barred 6 years no written contact or payment = August/September 2014 = this debt is statue barred. The debt collector is saying default date March 2009 + 6 years = March 2015 = Statute barred
Who is right? Is there any credible legal guidance for this? Lastly seeing as no payment has ever been made on this account is the default date of 9th March 2009 correct in any case considering the account was apparently opened 8th June?
Thank you!
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