Hi, if a judgment is set aside, what happens next? Would the claimant put in a new claim which would be dated at the point of the new claim?
The scenario is this; I think the debt is statute-barred, but they claim that payment was made 2 weeks before the 6 years would have elapsed and a 6 years and matter of days before the judgment (by default) was entered. I have asked for evidence of this via SAR, but it has been ignored. I'm taking a punt on the set-aside, and feel it's worth £255 to give it a go.
if, and I know it's a big if, the judgment was set-aside, would the date of the new claim be then, or back when the original claim was made? hope that question makes sense, as it would make any new claim 100% statute-barred.
Thanks
The scenario is this; I think the debt is statute-barred, but they claim that payment was made 2 weeks before the 6 years would have elapsed and a 6 years and matter of days before the judgment (by default) was entered. I have asked for evidence of this via SAR, but it has been ignored. I'm taking a punt on the set-aside, and feel it's worth £255 to give it a go.
if, and I know it's a big if, the judgment was set-aside, would the date of the new claim be then, or back when the original claim was made? hope that question makes sense, as it would make any new claim 100% statute-barred.
Thanks
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