Hi, can anyone help with the following?
I hired a builder to do works on my house. He said he would need 4 workmen including him to do the work. It would take them 4 to 5 days to complete the works. He also said he needed scaffolding. He quoted me £4500 as a fixed price.
In the end he did not bring any extra men to the work, he completed the work by himself in 1.5 days, and he did not need the scaffolding!
Although the price was fixed can it be right that he is allowed to rip me off by quoting for all this extra workers and days to complete it, but then take all the money for himself? Its just so unfair.
We are now using an arbitrator. Can any help me understand a few things?
1. Does an arbitrator consider the consumer rights act in their decision making?
2. Would an arbitrator have to award it to one side if the other has behaved illegally. In my case the builder was unable to give me a receipt for materials he purchased. He admitted he paid with cash (clearly to increase his profit). However he still had the gall to charge me VAT on the item he did not pay for himself!
3. How am I able to prove why it was reasonable for me to be ignorant that the quoted and agreed price was an act of ‘purposely taking advantage’.
I hired a builder to do works on my house. He said he would need 4 workmen including him to do the work. It would take them 4 to 5 days to complete the works. He also said he needed scaffolding. He quoted me £4500 as a fixed price.
In the end he did not bring any extra men to the work, he completed the work by himself in 1.5 days, and he did not need the scaffolding!
Although the price was fixed can it be right that he is allowed to rip me off by quoting for all this extra workers and days to complete it, but then take all the money for himself? Its just so unfair.
We are now using an arbitrator. Can any help me understand a few things?
1. Does an arbitrator consider the consumer rights act in their decision making?
2. Would an arbitrator have to award it to one side if the other has behaved illegally. In my case the builder was unable to give me a receipt for materials he purchased. He admitted he paid with cash (clearly to increase his profit). However he still had the gall to charge me VAT on the item he did not pay for himself!
3. How am I able to prove why it was reasonable for me to be ignorant that the quoted and agreed price was an act of ‘purposely taking advantage’.
Comment