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My nephew has just sold his car privately, he gave the buyer a receipt offering no warranty offered or implied, to the best of his knowledge the car was in a sound working condition with no known faults. It was a Citroen C2 1,1 2005 with 68K with full service history, he sold the car for £700.
Buyer came & looked at car, agreed the sale, money changed hands & then he drove the car to the petrol station 1/2 mile away, then proceeded on his onward journey, 1/4 mile later car stopped & wouldn't start again. He rang my nephew who went down with his mother, they gave them the money back including the extra money for the petrol, then called me to tow the car home. It appears that the cambelt has snapped & it will be uneconomical to repair, he may get £200 parts/scrap.
My question is, morally we did the correct thing & have no qualms about doing it, but what does the law say about this? Caveat Emptor & all that?
Buyer came & looked at car, agreed the sale, money changed hands & then he drove the car to the petrol station 1/2 mile away, then proceeded on his onward journey, 1/4 mile later car stopped & wouldn't start again. He rang my nephew who went down with his mother, they gave them the money back including the extra money for the petrol, then called me to tow the car home. It appears that the cambelt has snapped & it will be uneconomical to repair, he may get £200 parts/scrap.
My question is, morally we did the correct thing & have no qualms about doing it, but what does the law say about this? Caveat Emptor & all that?
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