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Hi there people, first post, so don't be too harsh.
Probably a bit of a weird and probably also daft question, but here goes:
I defaulted on a credit card debt over 5 years ago, and the account was eventually sold on to a debt recovery outfit who've been threatening me with legal action ever since, and I believe the statute barred 6 year limit is approaching. At the time I defaulted, I decided to keep my current account, which was in overdraft with the same bank as the credit card, within the allowed overdraft limits, and have been making payments into the account every few months ever since. As the balance, with interest, keeps approaching the limit, I pay a little in to stay within the limit, as I knew how much the charges could get out of control with overdrafts. In retrospect, I think this was a mistake, as I'm pretty sure the account can't be used for anything, as they never sent me a new debit card, I assume because of my credit card default, but oddly never demanded I clear the overdraft either, they've just acted like nothing is wrong or unusual with the account, sending me regular statements. But I've just been paying money into what I think is a useless current account, which has ended up going on for 5 years (which wasn't exactly what I'd intended, but I wasn't sure what I intended at the time, so it's ended up this way, if you know what I mean). In retrospect I wish I'd just let the account go over the overdraft limits and default with the credit card, I think. Doing that now, I'm sure would be a mistake, as it would lead to another default on my credit record, all these years later.
Anyway, there's one thing that's bugging me, though, and it's that I read somewhere that some banks were linking up current accounts and credit card accounts, and money from one could be used as payment to another. So I have in my head the probably paranoid notion that the fact that I've been making payments into the current account could be construed/suggested as making a payment towards my credit card debt, hence making my believed closeness to the statute barred date of my credit card debt, incorrect (i.e. I might be no where near the 6 years I think I am). I think it's probably daft thought, as no money has been formally taken from my current account to make payment towards the credit card debt, but I just want to check this couldn't be the case. They're completely separate debts and I'm being daft, right?
Thanks for any help. I hope I've explained what I'm getting at well enough for people to understand.
Probably a bit of a weird and probably also daft question, but here goes:
I defaulted on a credit card debt over 5 years ago, and the account was eventually sold on to a debt recovery outfit who've been threatening me with legal action ever since, and I believe the statute barred 6 year limit is approaching. At the time I defaulted, I decided to keep my current account, which was in overdraft with the same bank as the credit card, within the allowed overdraft limits, and have been making payments into the account every few months ever since. As the balance, with interest, keeps approaching the limit, I pay a little in to stay within the limit, as I knew how much the charges could get out of control with overdrafts. In retrospect, I think this was a mistake, as I'm pretty sure the account can't be used for anything, as they never sent me a new debit card, I assume because of my credit card default, but oddly never demanded I clear the overdraft either, they've just acted like nothing is wrong or unusual with the account, sending me regular statements. But I've just been paying money into what I think is a useless current account, which has ended up going on for 5 years (which wasn't exactly what I'd intended, but I wasn't sure what I intended at the time, so it's ended up this way, if you know what I mean). In retrospect I wish I'd just let the account go over the overdraft limits and default with the credit card, I think. Doing that now, I'm sure would be a mistake, as it would lead to another default on my credit record, all these years later.
Anyway, there's one thing that's bugging me, though, and it's that I read somewhere that some banks were linking up current accounts and credit card accounts, and money from one could be used as payment to another. So I have in my head the probably paranoid notion that the fact that I've been making payments into the current account could be construed/suggested as making a payment towards my credit card debt, hence making my believed closeness to the statute barred date of my credit card debt, incorrect (i.e. I might be no where near the 6 years I think I am). I think it's probably daft thought, as no money has been formally taken from my current account to make payment towards the credit card debt, but I just want to check this couldn't be the case. They're completely separate debts and I'm being daft, right?
Thanks for any help. I hope I've explained what I'm getting at well enough for people to understand.
