Hi all
I was hoping someone could give me some advice. I started a Debt Management Plan in July 2009 and administered this myself. In November 2010 I could not sustain the plan due to increased mortgage payments and other issues. I joined Payplan and they sent revised reduced offers to my creditors. All accepted the new payments.
Both of these entries state that the default date is January 2011 (when Payplan started), although I have been paying reduced payments to them since July 2009.
Should the default date not be the same on all the records – ie. July 2009 when I first started the DMP? Or at least November 2010 when I started the further reduced payments via Payplan. Or can creditors continually update default dates when payments are late, debts are sold etc. I am concerned that my debts will be on my file much longer than the 6 years.
Any advice would be much appreciated.
thanks
I was hoping someone could give me some advice. I started a Debt Management Plan in July 2009 and administered this myself. In November 2010 I could not sustain the plan due to increased mortgage payments and other issues. I joined Payplan and they sent revised reduced offers to my creditors. All accepted the new payments.
- On my credit file for one of my creditors, it is showing an ‘arrangement to pay’ status from July 2009 to December 2010. Then on January 2011 the status has been changed to default (am guessing this is when Payplan took over and further reduced payments started). The next entry is January 2012 stating settled. This was when the debt was sold to a DCA. There is a new entry for the DCA, starting January 2012.
Both of these entries state that the default date is January 2011 (when Payplan started), although I have been paying reduced payments to them since July 2009.
- Another creditor on my file has updated the default date to 27th February 2011 although I have been paying reduced payments since July 2009 and this debt has not been sold on. I believe this is because the Payplan payment that month was late for some reason (and totally out of my control – it left my bank on the same day it had done every other month).
- A third creditor (a DCA) has updated the default date to 27th July 2011 because the debt was sold to them on this date, although the default goes back to July 2009 (the original debt does not have a record)
Should the default date not be the same on all the records – ie. July 2009 when I first started the DMP? Or at least November 2010 when I started the further reduced payments via Payplan. Or can creditors continually update default dates when payments are late, debts are sold etc. I am concerned that my debts will be on my file much longer than the 6 years.
Any advice would be much appreciated.
thanks