:doggieyes:Hello Legal Beagles, does anyone know if a property bought (as a family home) with a buy to let mortgage, that has always been occupied as a dwelling by the borrower and their relatives, automatically become a regulated mortgage contract? I have checked the FCA handbook and PERG sections 4.1-4.4 seem to confirm the above (the 40% threshold). But I would like to know if this gives the protection of a regulated mortgage and safeguards a property from being forcibly sold at auction by a mortgage lender?
Any advice would be much appreciated.
Any advice would be much appreciated.