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My husband and I own our marital home jointly. Before we were married I also owned my own property outright. I still own this (mortgage free) property as a second home.
This property is my only pension - whereas my husband has a healthy pension pot.
We are (amicably) separating currently.
I would like to sell the property and reinvest the equity in something closer to us, and it makes sense to put this in joint names first to share the capital gains allowance. I would then buy a new property, again, in my own name.
My question is; if for any reason the property doesn't sell and we divorce first - am I putting myself in a more vulnerable position as the second house isn't in my sole name anymore? Would he then have more rights to 50% of it?
My understanding in a divorce is that the starting point is 50/50 anyway - and we are amicable, but I just want to ensure I don't deliberately put myself in a more vulnerable position or if this really wont be relevant anyway.
Any advice welcome. Many thanks.
This property is my only pension - whereas my husband has a healthy pension pot.
We are (amicably) separating currently.
I would like to sell the property and reinvest the equity in something closer to us, and it makes sense to put this in joint names first to share the capital gains allowance. I would then buy a new property, again, in my own name.
My question is; if for any reason the property doesn't sell and we divorce first - am I putting myself in a more vulnerable position as the second house isn't in my sole name anymore? Would he then have more rights to 50% of it?
My understanding in a divorce is that the starting point is 50/50 anyway - and we are amicable, but I just want to ensure I don't deliberately put myself in a more vulnerable position or if this really wont be relevant anyway.
Any advice welcome. Many thanks.
